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Code d'Examen: ST0-097
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 137 Q&As

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NO.1 During which phase of inbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 accept, reject, or
defer messages on the basis of the message envelope?
A. SMTP delivery
B. message filtering
C. SMTP session
D. message routing
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure different seed values on each control center
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure different seed values on each scanner
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of rows a report can have?
A. 100 rows
B. 1,000 rows
C. 10,000 rows
D. 100,000 rows
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41008
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A. It provides message management services.
B. It downloads spam definitions.
C. It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D. It downloads virus definitions.
E. It runs filters.
Answer: A, C

Symantec   certification ST0-097   ST0-097 examen   ST0-097   ST0-097 examen

NO.6 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec Brightmail
Gateway 9.0. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature will change the original domain of an internal user
relaying mail outside of an organization?
A. address masquerading
B. address aliasing
C. domain mapping
D. content filtering
Answer: D

Symantec examen   ST0-097   ST0-097   certification ST0-097

NO.8 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists.?
(Select two.)
A. add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains
B. check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group"
C. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions
D. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions
E. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions
Answer: B, E

Symantec   ST0-097 examen   ST0-097   ST0-097   ST0-097

NO.9 .In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A. when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B. when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C. when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D. when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E. when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.10 An organization is receiving spam because of small targeted attacks from unknown senders. Which
Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature should help slow down these types of attacks?
A. dictionary attack prevention
B. directory harvest attack prevention
C. global reputation analysis
D. connection classification
Answer: D

certification Symantec   ST0-097   ST0-097

NO.11 What is the new encryption action introduced in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0?
A. deliver messages with S/MIME encryption
B. deliver messages with content encryption
C. deliver messages with envelope encryption
D. deliver messages with PGP encryption
Answer: B

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NO.12 Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 includes a new policy-based encryption feature. How is this new
feature licensed?
A. The license is included with Symantec Protection Suite.
B. The license is included with Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0.
C. The license is included with Symantec Content Encryption.
D. The license is included with Symantec Endpoint Encryption.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which feature, when enabled through the directory data sources, allows third party MTAs the ability to
relay through Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 and protects it against becoming an open relay?
A. MTA verification
B. address validation
C. TLS certificate authentication
D. SMTP authentication
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-097   ST0-097 examen   ST0-097   ST0-097

NO.14 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A. accept and deliver messages normally
B. pause message scanning and delivery
C. do not accept incoming messages
D. flush incoming messages
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. hostname for default gateway
C. hostname, port, username, and password for proxy
D. two IP addresses for each appliance
Answer: A

Symantec examen   ST0-097   ST0-097

NO.16 What is the default report data retention period?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature improves responsiveness to new spam threats and
increases overall antispam effectiveness?
A. rapid release definitions
B. Fastpass
C. microupdates
D. real time updates
Answer: D

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NO.18 During which phase of outbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 determine
whether the number of recipients exceeds the good number of recipients per message?
A. message routing
B. message delivery
C. outbound SMTP session
D. outbound SMTP connection
Answer: C

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NO.19 What are the Symantec Global Bad and Good Sender lists based on?
A. reputation data from Symantec Global Services
B. reputation data from a global Symantec LiveUpdate server
C. reputation data from the Symantec Global Intelligence Network
D. global reputation data from Symantec Protection Center
Answer: C

Symantec   certification ST0-097   ST0-097 examen   ST0-097 examen

NO.20 Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts via
reports?
A. Invalid Senders
B. Sender HELO domains
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ST0-097
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 137 Q&As

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NO.1 Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 includes a new policy-based encryption feature. How is this new
feature licensed?
A. The license is included with Symantec Protection Suite.
B. The license is included with Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0.
C. The license is included with Symantec Content Encryption.
D. The license is included with Symantec Endpoint Encryption.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature improves responsiveness to new spam threats and
increases overall antispam effectiveness?
A. rapid release definitions
B. Fastpass
C. microupdates
D. real time updates
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-097 examen   certification ST0-097   ST0-097   certification ST0-097

NO.3 What is the default report data retention period?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A

Symantec examen   certification ST0-097   ST0-097   ST0-097 examen

NO.4 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41008
Answer: B

Symantec examen   ST0-097   ST0-097   ST0-097   ST0-097

NO.5 A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure different seed values on each control center
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure different seed values on each scanner
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-097   ST0-097   ST0-097   ST0-097   ST0-097 examen

NO.6 .In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A. when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B. when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C. when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D. when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E. when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

Symantec   ST0-097 examen   ST0-097 examen

NO.7 What is the new encryption action introduced in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0?
A. deliver messages with S/MIME encryption
B. deliver messages with content encryption
C. deliver messages with envelope encryption
D. deliver messages with PGP encryption
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-097   ST0-097 examen   certification ST0-097

NO.8 During which phase of outbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 determine
whether the number of recipients exceeds the good number of recipients per message?
A. message routing
B. message delivery
C. outbound SMTP session
D. outbound SMTP connection
Answer: C

Symantec   certification ST0-097   ST0-097

NO.9 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A. It provides message management services.
B. It downloads spam definitions.
C. It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D. It downloads virus definitions.
E. It runs filters.
Answer: A, C

Symantec   certification ST0-097   ST0-097

NO.10 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec Brightmail
Gateway 9.0. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-097 examen   certification ST0-097

NO.11 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature will change the original domain of an internal user
relaying mail outside of an organization?
A. address masquerading
B. address aliasing
C. domain mapping
D. content filtering
Answer: D

certification Symantec   ST0-097   ST0-097 examen   ST0-097

NO.12 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists.?
(Select two.)
A. add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains
B. check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group"
C. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions
D. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions
E. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions
Answer: B, E

Symantec examen   certification ST0-097   certification ST0-097   ST0-097   ST0-097

NO.13 What are the Symantec Global Bad and Good Sender lists based on?
A. reputation data from Symantec Global Services
B. reputation data from a global Symantec LiveUpdate server
C. reputation data from the Symantec Global Intelligence Network
D. global reputation data from Symantec Protection Center
Answer: C

Symantec examen   certification ST0-097   ST0-097   ST0-097 examen

NO.14 An organization is receiving spam because of small targeted attacks from unknown senders. Which
Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature should help slow down these types of attacks?
A. dictionary attack prevention
B. directory harvest attack prevention
C. global reputation analysis
D. connection classification
Answer: D

Symantec examen   ST0-097   ST0-097   ST0-097 examen   ST0-097

NO.15 Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts via
reports?
A. Invalid Senders
B. Sender HELO domains
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

Symantec examen   ST0-097   ST0-097   ST0-097

NO.16 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. hostname for default gateway
C. hostname, port, username, and password for proxy
D. two IP addresses for each appliance
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-097 examen   certification ST0-097   ST0-097

NO.17 Which feature, when enabled through the directory data sources, allows third party MTAs the ability to
relay through Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 and protects it against becoming an open relay?
A. MTA verification
B. address validation
C. TLS certificate authentication
D. SMTP authentication
Answer: D

certification Symantec   ST0-097   ST0-097   certification ST0-097

NO.18 What is the maximum number of rows a report can have?
A. 100 rows
B. 1,000 rows
C. 10,000 rows
D. 100,000 rows
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-097 examen   ST0-097

NO.19 During which phase of inbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 accept, reject, or
defer messages on the basis of the message envelope?
A. SMTP delivery
B. message filtering
C. SMTP session
D. message routing
Answer: C

Symantec   certification ST0-097   ST0-097 examen   ST0-097   ST0-097   ST0-097

NO.20 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A. accept and deliver messages normally
B. pause message scanning and delivery
C. do not accept incoming messages
D. flush incoming messages
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-097 examen   ST0-097   ST0-097

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Code d'Examen: ASC-066

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC EndPoint Management Assessment)

Questions et réponses: 83 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ASC-012

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC High Availablity Assessment)

Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-097

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))

Questions et réponses: 137 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-090

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec control compliance suite 10.0)

Questions et réponses: 156 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ASC-093

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC Data Loss Prevention 2010)

Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ASC-091

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC Data Protection 2010)

Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

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NO.1 When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A.likelihood of occurrence
B.order of occurrence
C.level of inconvenience to the customer
D.impact to the project
E.visibility to senior management
Answer: AD

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NO.2 What is an organizational view?
A.a hierarchical grouping of resources
B.a hierarchical list of user permissions
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a set of reports organized by computers and users
Answer: A

Symantec   ASC-066   ASC-066

NO.3 What are two benefits of using Symantec's Service Delivery Methodology? (Select two.)
A.reduces the risk of project scope creep
B.minimizes project risk
C.provides proven delivery methodology
D.uses industry best practices
E.increases customer satisfaction
Answer: CD

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NO.4 What is the primary purpose of Site Services?
A.decentralized administration
B.centralized administration
C.minimize WAN utilization
D.increase agent to Notification Server communications
Answer: C

Symantec   ASC-066   ASC-066 examen

NO.5 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Select two.)
A.information related to the configuration of managed computers
B.an inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C.physical software packages to install applications on managed computers
D.Symantec Management Platform core web application settings
E.settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

Symantec   ASC-066   ASC-066 examen   ASC-066 examen

NO.6 Which two duties are performed by Site Servers? (Select two.)
A.move policies and tasks closer to their points of distribution
B.move network-intensive services closer to their points of distribution
C.move software and clients to the distribution pool
D.move memory intensive services to a different site
E.move processor-intensive services off of the Notification Server
Answer: BE

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NO.7 Which two statements are correct when determining Notification Server hardware requirements?
(Select two.)
A.Hardware specification is directly proportional to the number of managed endpoints.
B.Optimizing individual solutions can decrease the supported managed endpoints.
C.Number of utilized solutions affects the maximum supported endpoint count.
D.MS SQL installed on the Notification Server increases the maximum supported endpoint count.
E.Placing site servers in the environment decreases the supported managed endpoints on a Notification
Server.
Answer: AC

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NO.8 What is an organizational group?
A.an object that contains resources and other organizational groups
B.a list of users with a given set of permissions and privileges
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a report showing a selected organization of computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two factors can influence overall Client Management Suite design? (Select two.)
A.network bandwidth and topology
B.managed node count
C.Notification Server service pack version
D.change control process
E.database maintenance schedules
Answer: AB

Symantec   certification ASC-066   ASC-066   certification ASC-066   ASC-066

NO.10 What should a consultant recommend to a customer as a post-engagement service offering?
A.ongoing tech support
B.additional licenses
C.new hardware and software
D.six month health check
Answer: D

certification Symantec   ASC-066   ASC-066   certification ASC-066   ASC-066

NO.11 Which critical engagement meeting ensures all stakeholders have the same expectations of the goals
and deliverables of the project?
A.Customer Needs Assessment Meeting
B.Customer Engagement Planning Meeting
C.Business Requirements Meeting
D.Project Kick-off Meeting
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ASC-066   ASC-066 examen

NO.12 Before going to a customer site for solution deployment, what should a consultant check for?
A.places to stay and eat
B.product updates
C.competitive products
D.customer's competition
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ASC-066   ASC-066   certification ASC-066

NO.13 How is resource scoping implemented?
A.by including the appropriate filters and organizational views and groups in a target's rules
B.by granting the permissions to appropriate organizational views and groups to a security role
C.by replacing the filters and organizational views and groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections
D.by creating multiple organizational views and groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources
Answer: B

Symantec   ASC-066   certification ASC-066   ASC-066   ASC-066   ASC-066

NO.14 Which SMP component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A.Package Server
B.Task Server
C.Site Server
D.PXE Server
Answer: C

Symantec examen   ASC-066   ASC-066

NO.15 What is the Notification Server the primary component of?
A.SIM
B.SAM
C.Deployment Server
D.Symantec Management Platform
Answer: D

Symantec examen   ASC-066   ASC-066   ASC-066   ASC-066 examen

NO.16 What is the primary goal of the assessment phase of the Client Management Suite service?
A.Determine solution requirements and expectations of all stakeholders within the project.
B.Determine the solution configuration of all components.
C.Define the solution architecture and provide hardware and software requirements.
D.Define the solution workflow in order to design the solution configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.17 If a consultant fails to identify who will be responsible for post-engagement technical support, who will
end up being responsible?
A.the consultant
B.Symantec Support
C.the customer
D.the project manager
Answer: A

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NO.18 How are console permissions assigned to resources on the Notification Server?
A.Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B.Organizational Views and Groups
C.Access Control Lists (ACL)
D.Filters and Targets
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is a Site Server?
A.any computer with a site service installed on it
B.any computer with software packages stored on it
C.any Notification Server assigned to be in a site
D.any server that is assigned to be in a site
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two items should be associated with a site when configuring sites on the Notification Server?
(Select two.)
A.site services
B.clients
C.subnets
D.Notification Server
E.multi-cast addresses
Answer: AC

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