Notre EMC données certification est le plus récent: ST0-066

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2014年4月5日星期六

Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur Symantec ST0-029 ST0-030 ST0-47X ST0-074 ST0-066 ST0-052 ST0-058

Le test de Certification Symantec ST0-029 ST0-030 ST0-47X ST0-074 ST0-066 ST0-052 ST0-058 devient de plus en plus chaud dans l'Industrie IT. En fait, ce test demande beaucoup de travaux pour passer. Généralement, les gens doivent travailler très dur pour réussir.

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Code d'Examen: ST0-029
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 161 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-030
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Mail Security 8300 Series (STS))
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-47X
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 6.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-074
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Mgmt Platform 7.0 with Notification Server (STS))
Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-066
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 91 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-052
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows (STS))
Questions et réponses: 158 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-058
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS))
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three are functions of the Control Center? (Select three.)
A. Consolidates logging information
B. Houses Email Spam Quarantine messages
C. Generates encrypted structured data indexes
D. Executes email policies
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 What is a key prerequisite for enabling the end-user Email Spam Quarantine feature?
A. Selecting the 'Delete messages sent to unresolved email addresses' option
B. Importing a list of allowed users on the Quarantine Setup page
C. Defining an LDAP source for synchronization
D. Defining an LDAP source for authentication
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the function of the DNS MX record?
A. Specifies the IP addresses for gateway email servers that process Internet traffic
B. Redirects internal IM traffic to the 8300 Series to enforce IM security
C. Specifies the hostnames that accept SMTP email for a domain and the priority in which the hostnames
should be tried
D. Identifies the IP addresses associated with host names
Answer: C

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NO.4 Under which condition is the 'Strip and Hold in Suspect Virus Quarantine' action available for use?
A. If a message is unscannable for viruses
B. If a message contains a suspicious attachment
C. If a message contains a mass-mailing worm
D. If a message contains a virus
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the function of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 Transformation Engine?
A. Based on configured policies, performs the required actions on the message
B. Based on configured policies, scans the message for attributes and violations
C. Based on default policies, stores spam and virus messages
D. Based on default policies, provides automated synchronization from LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is a content filtering capability of Symantec Mail Security 8300?
A. True file type scanning
B. Advanced phishing capability
C. Custom sieve editor
D. Word stemming analysis
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300?
(Select two.)
A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default
B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance
C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis
D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access
E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention
Answer: CD

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NO.8 What is the key purpose of the Alerts feature of the Control Center?
A. Sends email alerts to administrators or other parties
B. Sends SNMP notifications to administrators or other parties
C. Informs Symantec Mail Security 8300 administrators of antispam attacks detected by Symantec
D. Sends email notifications to senders who violate configured email security policies
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two Symantec Mail Security 8300 Control Center components can be used to store email
security violations? (Select two.)
A. Suspect virus quarantine
B. Email virus logging
C. Message audit logs
D. Email spam quarantine
E. Instant message quarantine
Answer: AD

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NO.10 Which statement is true about Content Compliance policies?
A. Available linked compound conditions include AND, OR, XOR, and NOT.
B. They are evaluated in the order listed on the main page of the Compliance tab.
C. There is a set limit to the number of conditions per compliance policy.
D. The order of conditions in a filter is important when a filter matches a message.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which Symantec Mail Security 8300 component retrieves new and updated spam filters from
Symantec Security Response through secure HTTPS file transfer?
A. Conduit
B. Uplink
C. LiveUpdate
D. Sequencer
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the recommended deployment location for Symantec Mail Security 8300?
A. In front of the external firewall
B. Behind the existing Exchange server
C. At the SMTP gateway
D. Integrated with the existing gateway SMTP server
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-030   ST0-030   ST0-030

NO.13 What must be true in the DNS set up to establish load sharing via DNS round robin across multiple
SMTP gateway servers?
A. The preference numbers or weightings of the MX records must be the same.
B. The Ptr records for the servers must point to the same hostname.
C. The load sharing attribute must reference a valid hardware load balancer with an externally routable IP
address.
D. The preference numbers of the A records must be set to 10.
Answer: A

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NO.14 On which two areas on the Control Center can you view license expiration status? (Select two.)
A. On the Control Center Dashboard
B. On the Licenses page
C. On the Alerts page
D. On the License Summary Report
Answer: AB

Symantec   ST0-030   ST0-030   ST0-030

NO.15 How does the LDAP synchronization process treat mail-enabled groups?
A. As a user list
B. As a distribution list
C. As domain groups
D. As an LDAP list
Answer: B

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2014年3月26日星期三

Le meilleur matériel de formation examen Symantec ST0-066

Généralement, les experts n'arrêtent pas de rechercher les Q&As plus proches que test Certification. Les documentations offertes par les experts de Pass4Test peuvent vous aider à passer le test Certification. Les réponses de nos Q&As ont une précision 100%. C'est facile à obtenir le Certificat de Symantec après d'utiliser la Q&A de Pass4Test. Vous aurez une space plus grande dans l'industrie IT.

Maintenant, beaucoup de professionnels IT prennent un même point de vue que le test Symantec ST0-066 est le tremplin à surmonter la pointe de l'Industrie IT. Beaucoup de professionnels IT mettent les yeux au test Certification Symantec ST0-066.

Code d'Examen: ST0-066
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 91 Q&As

Aujourd'hui, c'est une société pleine de gens talentueux, la meilleure façon de suivre et assurer la place dans votre carrière est de s'améliorer sans arrêt. Si vous n'augmentez pas dans votre carrière, vous êtes juste sous-développé parce que les autres sont meilleurs que vous. Pour éviter ce cas, vous devez vous former successivement.

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ST0-066 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/ST0-066.html

NO.1 Which Deployment Solution 6.9 Console feature lets the Deployment Solution Manager create jobs that
can automatically determine which set of tasks to perform on a computer?
A. Auto-detect
B. Conditions
C. Filters
D. DeployAnywhere
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the result of performing a Custom install of Deployment Solution 6.9 when the server name is
left blank under 'Discover Deployment Server Using TCP/IP Multicast'?
A. The agent will continue discovery attempts until the correct configuration is added to the new
Deployment Server.
B. The agent will prompt that a Deployment Server cannot be located.
C. The agent will connect to the first Deployment Server that responds.
D. The agent will fail and need to be reconfigured.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which component of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 helps reduce the cost of imaging and
managing workstations and thin clients from a centralized location?
A. Endpoint Virtualization Solution
B. Ghost Solution Suite
C. Deployment Solution
D. Hardware Management Solution
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator is in the process of installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1.
Before exiting the installation program, but after Deployment Solution has been installed, which two
optional features can be installed? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Software Virtualization Solution
B. Deployment agents for Windows 2000 or later only
C. Enable Microsoft Sysprep support
D. pcAnywhere
E. Ghost Solution Suite
Answer: BC

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NO.7 In the Symantec Management Console, which option allows an administrator to add trace level
messages to the Altiris Agent log file?
A. Enable Verbose Reporting of Status Events
B. Enable Trace Reporting of Status Events
C. Allow Failed Job Reporting for Status Events
D. Allow Agent Event Reporting for Status Events
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Inventory Solution activity is accomplished without leveraging a task or policy?
A. detailed file inventory
B. stand-alone inventory
C. custom inventory
D. targeted software inventory
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two agents are required for Patch Management to successfully deploy client patches? (Select
two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. Software Delivery Agent
C. Patch Management Update Agent
D. Software Update Agent
E. Patch Management Agent
Answer: AD

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NO.11 Where do you view the status of Software Updates while on a managed computer?
A. Add Remove Programs
B. Event Viewer
C. Software Management Agent
D. Altiris Agent
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: CE

Symantec   certification ST0-066   ST0-066 examen

NO.13 After installing Patch Management Solution, what must be downloaded before updates can be
distributed?
A. Microsoft .Net Framework
B. Microsoft QChain
C. Microsoft Vulnerability Alerts
D. Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis Report
E. Microsoft Patch Management Import
Answer: BE

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NO.14 Which two operating systems are supported when installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1 server
components? (Select two.)
A. VMWare ESX Server
B. Solaris 10
C. Windows 2003 64-bit
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5
E. Windows 2008
Answer: CE

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NO.15 Which two third-party software programs must be installed prior to installing Deployment Solution 6.9?
(Select two.)
A. ActiveX
B. SQL
C. .NET Framework
D. Java
E. pre-boot automation operating systems
Answer: BC

Symantec   certification ST0-066   certification ST0-066   ST0-066

NO.16 Which agent must be distributed to deploy patches?
A. Software Delivery Update Agent
B. Client Task Agent
C. Patch Management Agent
D. Software Update Agent
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is the function of the applicability rule?
A. It determines conflicts with other software resources within the Software Catalog.
B. It determines if a software resource has all the required components for delivery.
C. It determines if a software resource is applicable to the Software Portal for self-delivery.
D. It determines if a software resource is applicable to a given computer.
Answer: D

certification Symantec   ST0-066   ST0-066 examen   ST0-066

NO.18 When using a Custom install for a Deployment Solution 6.9 installation, which three components are
optional? (Select three.)
A. Deployment Database
B. PXE Server
C. DHCP Server
D. pre-boot operating systems
E. Deployment Web Console
Answer: BDE

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NO.19 Which two utilities or programs add additional pre-boot automation operating systems to the
Deployment Solution 6.9 installation? (Select two.)
A. PXE Configuration Utility
B. Boot Disk Creator
C. Ghost Explorer
D. PXE Component Installer
E. PXE Automation Installer
Answer: AB

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NO.20 Which default Standard Inventory policy is enabled to run when Inventory Solution is first installed?
A. Collect Full Inventory
B. Collect Hardware Inventory
C. Collect Custom Inventory
D. Collect Basic Inventory
Answer: A

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Finalement, la Q&A Symantec ST0-066 plus nouvelle est lancé avec tous efforts des experts de Pass4Test. Aujourd'hui, dans l'Industrie de IT, si on veut se renforcer sa place, il faut se preuve la professionnalité aux les autres. Le test Symantec ST0-066 est une bonne examination des connaissances professionnelles. Avec le passport de la Certification Symantec, vous aurez un meilleur salaire et une plus grande space à se développer.

2014年1月29日星期三

Certification Symantec de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen ST0-066, questions et réponses

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Il demande les connaissances professionnelles pour passer le test Symantec ST0-066. Si vous manquez encore ces connaissances, vous avez besoin de Pass4Test comme une resourece de ces connaissances essentielles pour le test. Pass4Test et ses experts peuvent vous aider à renfocer ces connaissances et vous offrir les Q&As. Pass4Test fais tous efforts à vous aider à se renforcer les connaissances professionnelles et à passer le test. Choisir le Pass4Test peut non seulement à obtenir le Certificat Symantec ST0-066, et aussi vous offrir le service de la mise à jour gratuite pendant un an. Si malheureusement, vous ratez le test, votre argent sera 100% rendu.

Code d'Examen: ST0-066
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 91 Q&As

ST0-066 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/ST0-066.html

NO.1 What is the result of performing a Custom install of Deployment Solution 6.9 when the server name is
left blank under 'Discover Deployment Server Using TCP/IP Multicast'?
A. The agent will continue discovery attempts until the correct configuration is added to the new
Deployment Server.
B. The agent will prompt that a Deployment Server cannot be located.
C. The agent will connect to the first Deployment Server that responds.
D. The agent will fail and need to be reconfigured.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When using a Custom install for a Deployment Solution 6.9 installation, which three components are
optional? (Select three.)
A. Deployment Database
B. PXE Server
C. DHCP Server
D. pre-boot operating systems
E. Deployment Web Console
Answer: BDE

Symantec   ST0-066   ST0-066 examen   ST0-066   certification ST0-066

NO.3 Which two agents are required for Patch Management to successfully deploy client patches? (Select
two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. Software Delivery Agent
C. Patch Management Update Agent
D. Software Update Agent
E. Patch Management Agent
Answer: AD

Symantec   ST0-066 examen   ST0-066 examen

NO.4 In the Symantec Management Console, which option allows an administrator to add trace level
messages to the Altiris Agent log file?
A. Enable Verbose Reporting of Status Events
B. Enable Trace Reporting of Status Events
C. Allow Failed Job Reporting for Status Events
D. Allow Agent Event Reporting for Status Events
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which Inventory Solution activity is accomplished without leveraging a task or policy?
A. detailed file inventory
B. stand-alone inventory
C. custom inventory
D. targeted software inventory
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ST0-066   ST0-066   ST0-066   ST0-066

NO.7 After installing Patch Management Solution, what must be downloaded before updates can be
distributed?
A. Microsoft .Net Framework
B. Microsoft QChain
C. Microsoft Vulnerability Alerts
D. Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis Report
E. Microsoft Patch Management Import
Answer: BE

Symantec   ST0-066 examen   ST0-066   ST0-066

NO.8 Which default Standard Inventory policy is enabled to run when Inventory Solution is first installed?
A. Collect Full Inventory
B. Collect Hardware Inventory
C. Collect Custom Inventory
D. Collect Basic Inventory
Answer: A

Symantec   certification ST0-066   ST0-066

NO.9 Which two third-party software programs must be installed prior to installing Deployment Solution 6.9?
(Select two.)
A. ActiveX
B. SQL
C. .NET Framework
D. Java
E. pre-boot automation operating systems
Answer: BC

Symantec examen   ST0-066   certification ST0-066   certification ST0-066   ST0-066

NO.10 Which component of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 helps reduce the cost of imaging and
managing workstations and thin clients from a centralized location?
A. Endpoint Virtualization Solution
B. Ghost Solution Suite
C. Deployment Solution
D. Hardware Management Solution
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-066 examen   ST0-066   ST0-066 examen   ST0-066

NO.11 Which two operating systems are supported when installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1 server
components? (Select two.)
A. VMWare ESX Server
B. Solaris 10
C. Windows 2003 64-bit
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5
E. Windows 2008
Answer: CE

Symantec   ST0-066   certification ST0-066   ST0-066   ST0-066 examen   ST0-066

NO.12 What is the function of the applicability rule?
A. It determines conflicts with other software resources within the Software Catalog.
B. It determines if a software resource has all the required components for delivery.
C. It determines if a software resource is applicable to the Software Portal for self-delivery.
D. It determines if a software resource is applicable to a given computer.
Answer: D

certification Symantec   ST0-066   ST0-066 examen   ST0-066

NO.13 Which Deployment Solution 6.9 Console feature lets the Deployment Solution Manager create jobs that
can automatically determine which set of tasks to perform on a computer?
A. Auto-detect
B. Conditions
C. Filters
D. DeployAnywhere
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-066   certification ST0-066   ST0-066

NO.14 Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A

Symantec examen   certification ST0-066   ST0-066   ST0-066 examen   ST0-066 examen

NO.15 Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: CE

Symantec   ST0-066   certification ST0-066   certification ST0-066

NO.16 Which two utilities or programs add additional pre-boot automation operating systems to the
Deployment Solution 6.9 installation? (Select two.)
A. PXE Configuration Utility
B. Boot Disk Creator
C. Ghost Explorer
D. PXE Component Installer
E. PXE Automation Installer
Answer: AB

Symantec   ST0-066 examen   ST0-066 examen

NO.17 Which agent must be distributed to deploy patches?
A. Software Delivery Update Agent
B. Client Task Agent
C. Patch Management Agent
D. Software Update Agent
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-066   ST0-066 examen

NO.18 Where do you view the status of Software Updates while on a managed computer?
A. Add Remove Programs
B. Event Viewer
C. Software Management Agent
D. Altiris Agent
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: B

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NO.20 An administrator is in the process of installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1.
Before exiting the installation program, but after Deployment Solution has been installed, which two
optional features can be installed? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Software Virtualization Solution
B. Deployment agents for Windows 2000 or later only
C. Enable Microsoft Sysprep support
D. pcAnywhere
E. Ghost Solution Suite
Answer: BC

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Code d'Examen: ST0-47X

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 6.5 (STS))

Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-074

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Mgmt Platform 7.0 with Notification Server (STS))

Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-066

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 (STS))

Questions et réponses: 91 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-052

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows (STS))

Questions et réponses: 158 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-058

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS))

Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two backup methods can reset the archive bit on files? (Select two.)
A. working set
B. differential
C. full
D. incremental
Answer: CD

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NO.2 What are three types of templates? (Select three.)
A. Duplicate Backup Sets template
B. Export Media template
C. Synthetic Backup template
D. Erase Media template
E. Import Media template
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 Which statement is true about removable backup-to-disk folders?
A. They can exist on tape or disk media.
B. They can span multiple media.
C. Performance is significantly enhanced.
D. Only USB is supported.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 12 installation?
A. Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B. media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C. Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D. media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three properties can you configure when creating a media set? (Select three.)
A. overwrite protection periods
B. media vault rules
C. bar code rules
D. append periods
Answer: ABD

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NO.6 Which three options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select three.)
A. Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B. Backup Exec System Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D. Backup Exec Desktop Laptop Option
E. Backup Exec Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
Answer: BDE

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NO.7 Where can you find a list of all the media that is required for a restore job?
A. All Media node
B. media set
C. Reports tab
D. media vault
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are three supported processor types for installing/running Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select
three.)
A. AMD
B. Itanium
C. Pentium
D. Xeon
Answer: ACD

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NO.9 Which type of backup is used for an online database?
A. snapshot
B. flat
C. active
D. cold
Answer: A

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NO.10 How do you back up data residing on a network share that is not visible in the backup selections?
A. change the security of the network share to "full control"
B. add the UNC path in user-defined selections
C. install the Network Share Publishing Agent
D. install the NDMP option on the computer hosting the network share
Answer: B

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NO.11 If you use Symantec Backup Exec 12 to remove media from a device or slot, which location displays
the media?
A. online media
B. offline media
C. user-defined media vault
D. Scratch media set
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are two characteristics of the default media set named <span style="font-style: italic;">"Keep
Data Infinitely - Do Not Allow Overwrite"? (Select two.)
A. applies to all backup jobs until you create another media set
B. allows data to be appended to media for 90 days
C. cannot change the defaults for this media set
D. requires continuous introduction of Scratch Media unless you change the defaults
Answer: AD

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NO.13 When does a media's overwrite protection period begin?
A. at the time of the last write to the media
B. when the media is allocated to the media set
C. at the time of the first write to the media
D. when the media is ejected from the drive
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which option or agent was enhanced to support Windows Server 2008 Read Only Domain Controllers
(RODC)?
A. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
B. Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C. Active Directory Recovery Agent
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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NO.15 What do backup-to-disk folders provide? (Select three.)
A. faster method to back up and restore data
B. concurrent jobs to the same backup-to-disk folder
C. encryption when using Granular Recovery Technology
D. backup-to-disk with scheduled duplication to tape
Answer: ABD

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NO.16 What are three features of the Central Admin Server Option (CASO)? (Select three.)
A. distributed catalogs
B. administration of NetWare media server
C. load balancing across media servers
D. management of other central administration servers
E. centralized catalogs
Answer: ACE

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NO.17 What is a benefit of using preallocation in a backup-to-disk folder?
A. reduces file fragmentation
B. assigns media to backup jobs
C. assigns a backup-to-disk folder to a duplication job
D. prevents a job from running low on disk space
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 Agent/Option is necessary for encrypting a backup?
A. Advanced Device and Media Management (ADAMM)
B. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
C. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
D. Remote Agent for Windows Systems (RAWS)
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which database component is installed with Symantec Backup Exec 12?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 7
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 (SP-3a)
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
Answer: D

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NO.20 What are three consequences of doing only full backups? (Select three.)
A. only allows full restores
B. redundant backups
C. takes more time
D. requires more media
Answer: BCD

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NO.21 Which two periods must be defined when creating a Symantec Backup Exec 12 media set?
A. append and overwrite protection periods
B. system and overwrite protection periods
C. retention and overwrite protection periods
D. append and retention periods
Answer: A

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NO.22 If the overwrite protection period is current, when can media be overwritten? (Select three.)
A. when the overwrite protection level is set to None
B. when the media is erased, formatted, or labeled
C. when the media is associated with the Scratch media set
D. when the append period is expired
Answer: ABC

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NO.23 Which backup method should you use to back up only the files that were changed today?
A. full
B. working set
C. archive
D. differential
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which three security attributes does Symantec Backup Exec 12 designate for its service account or an
existing user account during installation? (Select three.)
A. domain administrator
B. backup operator
C. create a token object
D. administrative network
E. event viewer operator
Answer: ABC

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NO.25 What are three advantages of using the working set backup method? (Select three.)
A. requires fewer media to restore
B. requires less time to perform than a full backup
C. includes data that have been accessed in a specific number of days
D. provides a current backup of the entire system in one backup set
Answer: ABC

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NO.26 Which statement is true about performing a granular restore of an Active Directory object to a Windows
2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A. Granular restores of individual objects to the RODC are NOT allowed.
B. The Windows Active Directory service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
C. The individual object must first be restored to the Windows Active Directory Lightweight Directory
Service (Ad LDS).
D. The Windows VSS service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which two actions can you perform on a selection list when running in a Central Admin Server Option
(CASO) environment? (Select two.)
A. restrict backup to specific devices on media servers
B. restrict which users can run restore jobs
C. restrict backup to media servers in a pool
D. restrict which media servers can run duplicate jobs
Answer: AC

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NO.28 With which two backup methods can the option "use the Microsoft Change Journal if available" be
used? (Select two.)
A. archive
B. incremental
C. differential
D. working set
Answer: BC

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NO.29 What are three functions that the Symantec Backup Exec 12 media server performs? (Select three.)
A. controls and manages backup and restore operations
B. controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C. maintains the Backup Exec 12 database
D. attaches to and controls storage device hardware
Answer: ACD

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NO.30 You need to restore data from a family of three tapes. The first tape is missing.
Which option should you change to allow the remaining tapes to be cataloged?
A. "Request all media in the sequence for catalog operations"
B. "Use storage media-based catalogs"
C. "Enable direct access recovery"
D. "Associate media with 'Imported Media' media set"
Answer: A

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