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2014年5月24日星期六

Le plus récent matériel de formation EMC E20-016 E22-315

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Code d'Examen: E20-016
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Storage Networking Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E22-315
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Disk Library and Backup to Disk Technologies)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

E20-016 est un test de EMC Certification, donc réussir E20-016 est le premier pas à mettre le pied sur la Certifiction EMC. Ça peut expliquer certiainement pourquoi le test EMC E20-016 devient de plus en plus chaud, et il y a de plus en plus de gens qui veulent participer le test E20-016. Au contraire, il n'y a que pas beaucoup de gens qui pourrait réussir ce test. Dans ce cas, si vous vous réfléchissez étudier avec une bonne Q&A?

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NO.1 A company's IT organization is comparing two technology proposals. Option 1 would retain existing
legacy equipment while Option 2 would replace the existing infrastructure.
Option 1:
-Total operational costs = $300,000 per year -Annual storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial investment = $1,000,000 -Recurring annual operational costs = $150,000 per year -Annual storage
requirements = $50,000 per year
The company's write-off costs for the legacy equipment is $50,000. As a business analyst using a TCO
analysis, which course of action would you recommend?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
D. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
Answer: A

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NO.2 Areas A, B, and C are three performance segments that represent demands of application classes.
Which application performance need is illustrated by Segment C in the exhibit?
A. Throughput
B. Availability
C. Interoperability
D. Ease of management
Answer: A

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NO.3 After careful consideration, a business has decided to implement thin provisioning in its SAN
environment. Implementing thin provisioning will require the following investment:
- License costs = $100,000
- Other one-time costs (for example, training, installation) = $50,000 Continuing as is, storage
requirement projections over the next three years would total 70 TB. Employing thin provisioning will allow
the storage requirements to be reduced to 40 TB. The cost of storage is $40,000 per TB.
What is the return on investment (ROI) percentage for this project?
A. 7
B. 70
C. 700
D. 7000
Answer: C

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NO.4 A multi-national bank provides online services to its customers. The bank has implemented a new credit
risk analysis system with data mining capabilities. In addition, the bank wants to provide enhanced
business intelligence to its loan officers.
The application development team has determined a 20 TB storage requirement. Which application
class(es) describe(s) this environment?
A. Enterprise
B. Workgroup
C. Externally networked
D. Workgroup and externally networked
Answer: A

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NO.5 A director contains eight port cards with four ports per card. If two of the director's port cards are
unavailable for five minutes, what is the path minute of SAN performance degradation?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 32
D. 40
Answer: D

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NO.6 A company is deploying a new application. During the requirements gathering process, your team has
documented several key company requirements.
What could be a key functional requirement?
A. Copying data to three different locations
B. Lower storage footprint
C. Interoperability with the existing infrastructure
D. Low administrative costs per TB/storage
Answer: A

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NO.7 An organization is using cloud storage to back up their employees
desktop data. The backup
application running at the organization s data center ensures moderate performance while backing up
data.
The application completes the entire backup within the stipulated backup window. By leveraging cloud
storage service, the backup application meets high-availability and high-recoverability requirements of
employees
data.
Based on the exhibit, which section accurately represents this application?
A. A
B. C
C. D
D. F
Answer: C

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NO.8 Areas A, B, and C are three performance segments that represent demands of application classes.
Which application performance need is illustrated by Segment B in the exhibit.?
A. Availability
B. Interoperability
C. Ease of management
D. Throughput
Answer: A

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Guide de formation plus récente de EMC E20-018 E20-361 E20-818

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Code d'Examen: E20-018
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Virtualized Data Center and Cloud Infrastructure Design Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 290 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-361
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 319 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-818
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 161 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
A customer is migrating their SQL server from a NAS back end to a new RAID 1-protected Symmetrix
V-Max SE array. Perfmon was used to create a log view of an average day's activity against the database
LUN as represented in the exhibit. Unfortunately the database's data file and transaction log are located
on the same LUN. The database administrator has informed you that this database typically processes 25
GB worth of transactions over the course of their 12-hour business day.
Which discount in IOPS should be taken before determining the number of spindles required for the data
file LUN?
A.75
B.152
C.176
D.365
Answer:A

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NO.2 A customer wants to provide remote disaster recovery (DR) for several critical mailbox servers in their
Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. Local recoverability is provided by creating replicas of their
critical databases.
The customer's DR site is located 20 km away. They have already provisioned the necessary failover host
on the DR site, as well as the required Active Directory infrastructure needed to support a failover.
However, they want to minimize the total number of database copies required to provide basic failover
capabilities for the Exchange server.
Which solution would you recommend to provide remote point-of-failure recovery with the fewest local
and remote database copies?
A.R1-R2-BCV
B.Mixed Mirroring
C.STD-R1BCV-R2-BRBCV
D.STD-R1BCV-R2
Answer:A

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NO.3 A customer wants to use Replication Manager to replicate and mount, at the file group level, a Microsoft
SQL Server database. What must be done before creating a Replication Manager file group replication
job?
A.Ensure no other data files are on the same volume with the selected file group
B.Copy the log files along with the file group data files
C.Use the recover database option when mounting a file group
D.Create a TimeFinder device group that contains only the file group data files
Answer:A

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NO.4 A customer has three data centers that are used to run SRDF/AR multi-hop on Symmetrix DMX-4
arrays.
Production is located at Site A
Secondary site is located at Site B
Tertiary site is located at Site C
In the event of a Site A failure, the customer wants to be able to fail over to Site C while retaining the
ability to have remote data protection. Which solution will offer the best RPO and RTO for this customer?
A.Cascaded SRDF
B.Latest version of SRDF/AR
C.Concurrent SRDF
D.SRDF/EDP
Answer:A

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NO.5 Group Name Services (GNS) is enabled in an SRDF/Star solution. What is a benefit of GNS in a
SRDF/Star environment?
A.Facilitates management of SRDF/Star when there are multiple management hosts at each location
B.Distributes the Star internal definition file to the Symmetrix arrays at both target locations
C.Propagates the composite group definitions over SRDF links
D.Restarts the SRDF daemon in the event it stops unexpectedly
Answer:A

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NO.6 A new Cascaded SRDF customer is running in SRDF/A mode from the source (R1) site to the
disk-based secondary (R21) site. In this scenario, which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and
the R2 sites?
A.Adaptive Copy Disk
B.Adaptive Copy Write Pending
C.Synchronous
D.Asynchronous
Answer:A

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NO.7 An Microsoft Exchange administrator has recently encountered an issue with one of the databases in
their Exchange 2007 environment. The decision was made to perform a partial restore of only the single
database.
Based on EMC and Microsoft best practice, what are the proper ordered steps needed to complete this
task?
A.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Restore the database replica. 3) Remove the .chk
file from the system path folder. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
B.1) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 2) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
C.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
D.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Remount all databases in the storage group. 4) Restore the database replica.
Answer:A

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NO.8 A Microsoft SQL Server database administrator wants to execute backups using Solutions Enabler SRM
functionality. Which ODBC variable(s) needs to be set to enable the symioctl and symrdb command set?
A.SYMCLI_RDB "CONNECT" and "TYPE" environment variables
B.SYMCLI_RDB "NAME" and "TYPE" environment variables
C.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "Connect" to the database "username/password"
D.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "TYPE" variable to "sqlserver"
Answer:A

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2014年5月2日星期五

Certification EMC de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen E20-361 E20-335 E22-186, questions et réponses

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Pass4Test est un site à offrir les Q&As de tout les tests Certification IT. Chez Pass4Test, vous pouvez trouvez de meilleurs matériaux. Nos guides d'étude vous permettent de réussir le test Certification EMC E20-335 sans aucune doute, sinon nous allons rendre votre argent d'acheter la Q&A et la mettre à jour tout de suite, en fait, c'est une situation très rare. Bien que il existe plusieurs façons à améliorer votre concurrence de carrière, Pass4Test est lequel plus efficace : Moins d'argent et moins de temps dépensés, plus sûr à passer le test Certification. De plus, un an de service après vendre est gratuit pour vous.

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Code d'Examen: E20-361
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 319 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-335
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E22-186
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint Administration Exam)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 File systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
D.iSCSI LUNs
Answer:B

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NO.2 How is Kerberos used within the Active Directory?
A.For user authentication
B.Provides encryption of stored user passwords
C.For time synchronization
D.Provides Dynamic DNS updates
Answer:A

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NO.3 What is the default result of joining a CIFS server to a Windows Active Directory domain?
A.The CIFS server shares are dynamically updated in DNS.
B.The CIFS server interface is dynamically assigned from Active Directory.
C.The "EMC Celerra" container is created in Active Directory.
D.The CIFS server is added to the Active Directory Computers container.
Answer:C

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NO.4 ile systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs
D.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which Celerra Data Mover file controls both the services used for name resolution and the order in
which they are used?
A.nsswitch.conf
B.nslookup.conf
C.hosts.conf
D.resolv.conf
Answer:A

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NO.6 What application provides integration between the Celerra and the iSCSI host for replicating an iSCSI
LUN?
A.Replication Manager
B.Unisphere Manager
C.Navisphere Manager
D.Celerra Manager
Answer:D

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NO.7 You have moved a VDM from one Data Mover to another. Now the users cannot access the data. What
could cause this condition?
A.Interface names are different to the source VDM.
B.The IP address on the target Data Mover is set before the move.
C.Target Data Mover sees all file systems of the source VDM.
D.You keep the same IP addresses.
Answer:A

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NO.8 An administrator wants to present several CIFS shares to users through one file server. The shares are
stored on many physical machines. What can be used with the Celerra to achieve this goal?
A.Celerra global CIFS server
B.Default CIFS server
C.Distributed File System
D.Virtual Data Mover
Answer:C

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Dernières EMC E20-322 E20-405 E20-891 examen pratique questions et réponses

E20-322 est un test de EMC Certification, donc réussir E20-322 est le premier pas à mettre le pied sur la Certifiction EMC. Ça peut expliquer certiainement pourquoi le test EMC E20-322 devient de plus en plus chaud, et il y a de plus en plus de gens qui veulent participer le test E20-322. Au contraire, il n'y a que pas beaucoup de gens qui pourrait réussir ce test. Dans ce cas, si vous vous réfléchissez étudier avec une bonne Q&A?

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Code d'Examen: E20-322
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Technology Architect Solutions Design)
Questions et réponses: 568 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-405
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC Content Management Server Programming(CMSP))
Questions et réponses: 229 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-891
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup Recovery Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 How do you manually configure the DFC global registry?
A. 1.add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
B. 1.encrypt the password
2. add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
C. 1.activate the registry user
2. change the password

NO.2 Which statement is true about Trusted Content Services (TCS)?
A. TCS is not required to create ApplicationPermission entries.
B. TCS is not required to evaluate ApplicationPermission entries.
C. TCS is not required to delete ApplicationPermission entries.
D. TCS validates and enforces application permissions at the server level.
Answer: B

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NO.3 encrypt the password

NO.4 Which interface can be used when creating repository objects that have content?
A. IDfTypedObject
B. IDfDocument
C. IDfPersistentObject
D. IDfContentObject
Answer: B

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NO.5 How should you deploy a TBO to the respository?
A. Using IDfClient.newModule() only
B. Using Documentum Application Installer only
C. Using both Documentum Application Installer and IDfClient.newModule()
D. Using Documentum Application Installer, IDfClient.newModule() and IDfClient.newService()
Answer: B

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NO.6 What kind of module is used to create a Documentum Web Service?
A. Type-based Business Object
B. Service-based Business Object
C. Web-based Business Object
D. Custom Module
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which SBO method signature is valid for conversion to a web service?
A. void setKeyword(IDfSysObject obj, int index, String value)
B. boolean uploadConfiguration(java.io.File myFile)
C. boolean setKeyword(IDfSysObject obj, int index, String value)
D. int countDocuments(IDfSession sess, String qualification)
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the object model?
A. dmr_content is not a sub-type of dm_sysobject although sysobject contents are stored as dmr_content
objects.
B. dm_acl objects are stored in the System cabinet.
C. Not all sysobjects can have associated permissions.
D. Virtual documents are objects of type dm_relation that describe a parent/child relationship between
objects.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-822
Nom d'Examen: EMC (CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-816
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 156 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-080
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Storage - SAN Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 210 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has a single V-Max and you are helping to design a new SRDF solution. This customer
wants to replicate all its data with SRDF over a Gigabit Ethernet.
In order to get the maximum benefit from scaling, what is the most important consideration?
A. All GigE ports on the source should be able to see all GigE ports on the target array
B. Ports must have auto-negotiation off because we don't support Jumbo Frames
C. Speed limit value in the Symmetrix configuration file (not persistent)
D. Speed limits can be set on GigE ports from 100 to 10000 Mb (megabits)
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer is running SRDF/A single session mode. They want to change into SRDF/S mode after
nightly periods of high write activity have completed. The switch to synchronous mode failed.
What is a potential cause for this failure?
A. SRDF/S cycle switching feature is not enabled.
B. Mode change feature is only supported with Concurrent SRDF.
C. SDRF/A write cache is not enabled at the remote site.
D. Fifty percent or more of SRDF/A write cache is in use on the target Symmetrix.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
SRDF/S over Fibre Channel has been configured between two V-Max arrays that are 50 kilometers apart.
What is the expected write response time delay due to latency?
A. 0.25 ms
B. 0.5 ms
C. 1 ms
D. 2 ms
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the key differences between SIRT in 5772 and SIRT in Symmetrix V-Max with 5874?
A. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT > 115 microsec
B. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 64 KB or RTT threshold > 520 microsec
C. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT < 115 microsec
D. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 128 KB or if RTT < 115 microsec
Answer: A

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NO.5 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes. The snap would be kept for 8 hours. How should the Change Tracker data
collection be set up to model the solution?
A. Sum report with a reset of 4 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer is implementing a new SRDF/S environment with DMX arrays. The primary and secondary
data centers are 20 kilometers apart.
Which consideration is needed for planning, designing, and implementing a synchronous solution?
A. Ensure that the application can tolerate the additional latency
B. Ensure that adequate cache on the arrays is allocated
C. Ensure that the RAID configuration is identical on both arrays
D. Ensure that there is twice the recommended amount of bandwidth
Answer: A

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NO.7 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes with a 16-hour RPO.
How should the Change Tracker data collection be set up to model the solution.?
A. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Sum report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer wants to migrate from DMX-3 with 5772 to DMX-4 with 5773 code. They are using
TimeFinder/Clone every night for backup processing with synchronous COFW. TimeFinder/Clone with
5773 allows them to use a new feature called asynchronous COFW.
How many back-end operations does TimeFinder/Clone make with Enginuity 5773 using Aynchronous
COFW compared with TimeFinder/Clone with Enginuity 5772?
A. Back-end operations are lower with 5773 Enginuity.
B. Back-end operations are the same in both Enginuity versions.
C. Back-end operations are higher with 5773 Enginuity.
D. Depends on disk speed and RAID protection.
Answer: B

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2014年4月17日星期四

Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur EMC E20-616

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Code d'Examen: E20-616
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 241 Q&As

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NO.1 All the memory slots in a DMX-1000 are occupied. In this case, what is run from the procedure Wizard
to perform Memory Replacement?
A. Add Memory Board script to the Universal slot script, run Replace Memory Board Script, and replace
that board
B. Remove Memory Board script first and then Add Memory Board Script
C. Replace Memory Board script
D. Upgrade Memory Board script
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a major difference in director data flow between the Symmetrix 8000 series and a DMX-2?
A. An 8430 uses loop redundancy
B. An 8530's directors are connected to two data busses
C. Directors in a DMX-2 are connected to top high and bottom low
D. DMX-2 port bypass cards are connected directly to cache
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of a Symmetrix DMX22000/3000 Card Cage. Where will you find ECM1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.4 When looking at the DMX FA Back Adapter, you notice that one of the SFPs is blue. What does this
mean?
A. Long wave, multi mode port
B. Long wave, single mode port
C. Short wave, multi mode port
D. Short wave, single mode port
Answer: B

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NO.5 When is the relationship between a data volume and a BCV created?
A. When the BCV is created in the bin file
B. When the BCV is established
C. When the BCV is split
D. When the BCV is varied on
Answer: B

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NO.6 What does the Interleave Service Policy manage during a read operation?
A. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 randomly
B. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 alternatively
C. Reads the tracks only from M1
D. Tracks measurements of I/O on logical volumes and chooses the appropriate mirror
Answer: B

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NO.7 When will a customer's host be able to access the data on a BCV?
A. After the BCV is established
B. After the BCV is split
C. When the BCV is created in the Bin
D. While the BCV is syncing with the data volume
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which component of a DMX-2 performs Front End, director-to-director communications?
A. CCM
B. ECM
C. LCC
D. PBC
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer's AC power fails to a Symmetrix 8430/8530. In this case, which components will the
battery subsystem sustain?
A. Card cage and disks
B. Communication cards and service processors
C. Disk drives and memory
D. Memory cards and service processor
Answer: A

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NO.10 A DMX-2 memory configuration containing four (4) memory boards is to be upgraded to larger size
cache boards. The upgrade results in a two (2) memory board configuration. How will the bandwidth of
the DMX-2 be affected by the upgrade?
A. Decreased by the smaller cache card count
B. Increased by the larger memory size
C. Unchanged, only memory size is affected
D. Will remain at the theoretical maximum
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer wants to set up an FA port for a 10km distance connection. Which optic mode will meet the
customer's need?
A. Long wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
B. Long wave, Fibre Single Mode port
C. Short wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
D. Short wave, Fibre Single Mode port
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which type of Symmetrix volume contains information on the dynamic mirror policy decisions, error
logging, event traces, code image storage, and a dedicated lost write area?
A. BCV
B. Data
C. DRV
D. SFS
Answer: D

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NO.13 How is DPR enabled?
A. By the EMC z/OS Storage Manager
B. In the bin file
C. Inlines Command
D. On the host by z/OS
Answer: B

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NO.14 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is CCM0?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D

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NO.15 Click the exhibit button.
The customer has handed you this service alert error message. What is the error?
A. Alarm signal set
B. PC failed to call home due to communication problems
C. Temperature problems
D. Mirror device is not ready at time of periodic test
Answer: D

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NO.16 A service processor fails to communicate with directors 1 through 8 in the DMX-2 series. Which
component can cause this failure?
A. CCM0
B. ECM0
C. ECM1
D. XCM
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is a difference between a Symmetrix 8830 and a DMX-2?
A. An 8830 24-slot card cage is scalable
B. Disks on a DMX-2 are FC-AL
C. DMX-2 uses a cache interconnect multi-drop bus
D. Maximum system bandwidth on an 8830 is 16Gb/s
Answer: B

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NO.18 On a DMX1000P, how many DAs are required?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.19 A customer wants to change Host Directors to support SRDF. What distinguishes one director type
from another within a Symmetrix 8000 series?
A. Director model number
B. Director revision
C. Emulation code
D. Enginuity code level
Answer: C

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NO.20 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is ECM1?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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Dernières EMC E20-485 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-485
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management Application Architecture Exam)
Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system with a series of web services built for
integration with existing financial and other enterprise systems. They want to add Documentum as their
Enterprise Content Management System. They prefer to minimize the number of necessary user
interfaces and want to make it so users ultimately do not need a Documentum interface. You recommend
a phased approach to integration with some initial user interface.
Which options and products meet the customer's needs?
A. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and High
Volume Server (HVS)
B. Phase 1 Content Server and High Volume Server (HVS) Phase 2 Documentum Foundation
Classes/Business Objects Foundation and Business Process Services (BPS)
C. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and
TaskSpace
D. Phase 1 Content Server and Business Process Services (BPS) Phase 2 TaskSpace and Process
Builder (PB)
Answer: A

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NO.2 You create a new custom type with the following attributes:
c_product string(32)
c_platform string(32) repeating
What is created in the database (DB)?
A. a single DB table only
B. two DB tables only
C. a single DB table and two DB views
D. two DB tables and four DB views
Answer: D

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NO.3 In addition to Digital Asset Manager (DAM), which client products are part of the Interactive Content
Management Solution?
A. Web Publisher (WP), File Share Services (FSS)
B. Webtop, File Share Services (FSS)
C. Webtop, TaskSpace
D. TaskSpace, File Share Services (FSS)
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company has an existing website and web publishing system. They are expanding the authoring of
content to non-web development staff and want to provide a simple interface where users can author
content for both internal and external websites. They will need considerable flexibility in the development
of the authoring interface for varied types of content but would prefer not to customize. The system should
also be able to share that content with their existing web content management system.
Besides WebPublisher, which products include a user interface that can be configured and used for
web-ready content authoring?
A. Webtop and Forms Builder (FB)
B. Webtop and Process Builder (PB)
C. TaskSpace and Workflow Manager
D. Digital Asset Manager (DAM) and Process Builder (PB)
Answer: A

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NO.5 A financial institution requests an SOA-enabled account opening process solution and has the
following requirements:
-robust workflow capability with support for high-fidelity forms
-simple and configurable transaction centric interface
-seamless integration with their Global Account Management System
Which solution meets the customer's requirements while minimizing the development effort?
A. TaskSpace, Process Suite, and Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
B. Webtop, Adobe Forms Designer, and Process Suite
C. a custom solution with SOA -enabled Business Process Manager (BPM)
D. eRoom, Process Suite and Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which EMC product is used to convert the text print stream into PDF format, extract the metadata, and
ingest the content into Documentum Repository?
A. Document Transformation Services
B. Import Manager
C. Archive Services Reports (ASR)
D. Bulk Loader
Answer: C

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NO.7 In addition to Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM) and Records Manager (RM), which products
contain a user interface and are part of the compliance and archiving products suite offered by
Documentum?
A. only Retention Policy Services (RPS)
B. Retention Policy Services (RPS) and Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
C. Content Storage Services (CSS)
D. only Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer wants to reduce storage cost. The company's infrastructure architect advises that tiered
storage be implemented and certain file sizes and formats be stored in the lowest tier. The company has
enterprise licenses for all Documentum products and wants to know how the architect's recommendation
can be implemented in Documentum.
Which policies can be used for this implementation?
A. containment policies
B. assignment policies
C. retention policies
D. naming policies
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer needs to secure and preserve the authenticity of PDF documents by applying an
electronic signature. All the PDF documents need to be identified by a unique reference corresponding to
their department and function, and the reference must be system-generated. A notification system is
required to alert the consumer of the documents for them to read and agree upon. If the consumer rejects
the document, they should be able to select the appropriate reason for rejection.
Which product will implement the above functionality?
A. Records Manager (RM)
B. TaskSpace and Adobe Forms
C. Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM)
D. Information Rights Manager (IRM)
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are designing the data model for a retailer's catalog application. A description of all products for
sale will be stored in the Documentum repository. There are thousands of different types of products.
Each product may have a unique set of attributes. Users should be able to add or remove attributes from
a product definition at runtime.
Which approach should you use to provide the required flexibility in data types, and also provide good
query performance when searching for product information?
A. You create a type called product that contains all common attributes and attach and detach attribute
aspects as required. For searching, you use the TRY_FTDQL_FIRST DQL hint.
B. You use XML content stored in an XML store, add and remove attributes by modifying the XML content,
and use IDfXQuery to search for product information.
C. You use lightweight objects with the parent object containing common attribute values. Parent objects
are created for each product description. For searching, you use NOFTDQL queries.
D. You create a standard object type hierarchy and issue alter type statements, as needed, to modify
types at runtime. For searching, you use FTDQL queries.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A company that develops highly-structured content via XML authoring has decided to use
Documentum for its XML chunking capabilities. They are also looking to reduce the problems they have
been experiencing with their existing model of authoring via a client side application and storing in a
centralized store. They understand that some level of customization or specialized configuration is
required.
Which action would use the least custom code in favor of configuration?
A. develop a set of forms using Forms Builder for users to author with a configured XML application for
chunking
B. develop a set of extended WebPublisher components for users to author with a configured XML store
for chunking
C. develop a set of extended Webtop components for users to author with a configured XML application
for chunking
D. develop a set of extended Digital Asset Manager (DAM) components for users to author with a
configured XML application for chunking
Answer: A

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NO.12 A law firm that handles a large volume of cases requires a system that meets the following
requirements:
-provides a central location to create, store and manage documents
-tracks discussions on a case and advice given
-protects the content of files sent to co-counsels and clients
Which solution meets the law firm's requirements?
A. Knowledge Worker solution and Information Rights Manager (IRM) Services
B. Transactional Content Management solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Interactive Content Management solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
D. Knowledge Worker solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
Answer: A

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NO.13 A company requires that when an article document is saved it should inherit certain attributes from the
folder it is stored into.
How should you design this solution?
A. create a custom TBO that overrides the doSave method of the folder object, so that when documents
are saved in it, their attributes are updated with the folder's attributes
B. create a relation between the folder and the document type with cascade update property set and add
the attributes to be inherited
C. create a Smart Container for the folder with a member relationship for the document and add the
attributes to be inherited
D. create a method that is scheduled as a job to update newly saved article documents.
Answer: C

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NO.14 An insurance company has standardized the client desktop on the Microsoft Office platform. The
company designed a claim Documentum workflow on Microsoft Word documents. The workflow needs to
be manually initiated by the user. Users would prefer a more integrated solution so that they do not need
to launch multiple applications to start a workflow.
Which product meets these requirements?
A. Webtop
B. Application Connectors
C. Process Integrator
D. Web Development Kit (WDK) applications
Answer: B

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NO.15 You have integrated Documentum Repository with Microsoft Exchange Server. You have been asked to
reduce storage costs by using content compression and de-duplication.
Which EMC solution meets these requirements?
A. Content Services for EMC Centera and Content Storage Service (CSS)
B. Content Storage Service (CSS) and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Documentum Client for Outlook (DCO) and Content Services for EMC Centera
D. High Volume Server and Archive Services for Email
Answer: A

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NO.16 The type hierarchy that is shown has only custom attributes displayed.
The following DQL statement is executed:
select
r_object_id
, object_name
, c_channel
from
c_product
where
datediff(week, r_creation_date, date(today)) <= 1
How many table joins would the query cause in the database when executed as a superuser?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: C

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NO.17 A Documentum customer is using Webtop to manage their documents. They want to provide read
access to these documents for their 2000 customers located globally. The customer has already
purchased Web Content Management (WCM) and does not want to incur any additional cost.
How can the customer meet these requirements with minimal effort?
A. create user accounts for their clients in the repository and expose Webtop outside the firewall with
"read" permission on the documents for the clients
B. use WebPublisher and Site Caching Services (SCS) to publish the documents to a website and provide
their clients access to the website
C. use Site Caching Services (SCS) to publish the documents to a website and provide their clients
access to the website
D. create a customization to run a nightly job to extract documents out of the repository and copy them to
a website, and provide their clients access to the website
Answer: C

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NO.18 A pharmaceutical company wants to implement a records management program that is cost effective.
The company needs a solution that provides the following capabilities:
- ability to classify records
- ability to apply retention on records
- ability to dispose records
- ability to hold records from disposition
Which Documentum product provides these capabilities and minimizes licensing costs?
A. Records Manager Administrator (RMA)
B. Records Manager (RM)
C. Retention Policy Services (RPS)
D. Physical Records Manager (PRM)
Answer: C

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NO.19 A customer needs a solution to address a heavy volume case management requirement. All of the
content attached to the cases are media files (audio/video). The key requirements are to have a simple
interface focusing on core functionality, which is case processing. The customer also needs the ability for
the case reviewer to see all information in a single screen, including the file attached to the case.
In addition to Process Suite, which solution would you recommend?
A. TaskSpace and Document Image Services
B. Digital Asset Manager (DAM)
C. customized TaskSpace
D. custom interface
Answer: C

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NO.20 A customer is planning to build a WebPublisher template with product name and product description
elements. When a user enters the values for the product name and product description fields in the
content, the product name value from the content needs to be copied to the keyword attribute.
Which solution meets this requirement with minimal effort?
A. customize WebPublisher WDK component to update attribute values upon saving of documents
B. create a TBO to update attribute values upon saving of documents
C. create an XML application to update attribute values from document content
D. create a custom SBO application and invoke it on document save.
Answer: C

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NO.21 A customer wants to maintain the annual financial reports using a Documentum Content Management
System. Different parts of the document must be authored and reviewed by different people and individual
parts of the document must be combined in a particular order to form the final PDF document.
What is useful for implementing the solution?
A. PDF Annotations Services and relationship objects
B. Smart Containers and Content Transformation Services (CTS)
C. Virtual Document and Advanced Document Transformation Services (ADTS)
D. XML applications and Media Transformation Services (MTS)
Answer: C

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NO.22 A customer has a remote office where there is limited IT support to maintain a Documentum
installation. There is a Wide Area Network with low bandwidth and high latency between the primary and
the remote sites.
Which solution best provides the user with the ability to read and write frequently used content at the
remote location with minimal IT support?
A. Content Server with Distributed Storage at the remote location
B. Webtop with remote users added to the express_user role
C. Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS) at the remote location
D. File Share Services (FSS) at the remote location
Answer: C

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NO.23 You are designing a Documentum application for managing project documents. When a new project is
initiated, the system should automatically create a folder for the project and populate it with 5 sub-folders
for the project phases and the appropriate document templates within each phase folder
Which approach meets these requirements with minimal effort?
A. construct a Smart Container with folders and document templates
B. define a relationship object for folders and document templates
C. create a Virtual Document for document templates and relationship for folders
D. customize Webtop to set up project folder structure
Answer: A

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NO.24 A new Documentum customer without any experience with Content Management systems has decided
to purchase Documentum for its out-of-the-box functionality. They have general requirements for their
users to have web access to basic content storage, library services, full-text search, and workflow.
Besides Content Server and Index Server, at a minimum, which solution would meet this customer's
requirements?
A. Webtop only
B. Webtop and Process Suite
C. Process Suite only
D. TaskSpace and Process Suite
Answer: A

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NO.25 In addition to Content Server, which server products are typically used for Interactive Content
Management Solutions?
A. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Enterprise Content Integration Services
(ECIS)
B. Document Transformation Services (DTS), Records Manager (RM)
C. Media Transformation Services (MTS), Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)
D. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Site Caching Services (SCS)
Answer: D

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NO.26 An engineer designs the data model that is shown for a shipping application in a repository that does
not have fulltext search enabled.
It is required that a query returns all shipping_transaction documents, shipped on a given shipping_date,
with a particular shipping_code.
Querying with either shipping_code or shipping_date alone would return hundreds of thousands of
objects. Querying on both shipping_date and shipping_code, returns a selective set of objects.
Given the example query:
select r_object_id, customer_id, shipping_date
from shipping_transaction
where na_specific_data.shipping_code=4267.86
and shipping_date = date('11/25/2008')
Which statement is true about use of aspects in this scenario?
A. It will cause a DQL parser error, because it is NOT possible to include both aspect and standard
attributes within the same query.
B. It will improve query response time, because the aspect metadata is only applied to some
shipping_transaction documents.
C. It will degrade query response time, because a database index on the combination of attributes that
make the query selective CANNOT be created.
D. It will degrade query response time, because the aspect metadata is only applied to some
shipping_transaction documents.
Answer: C

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NO.27 A company has a requirement to develop an application to manage a group of documents in a folder
through a business process. As the folder progresses, the different document types in that folder change
security based on status, their type, as well as the values of different attributes for those different types.
They are deciding whether to use Documentum workflow or an external workflow system.
Which type of configuration or customization will support the functionality without committing to using
Documentum versus a third-party workflow tool?
A. policy configuration only
B. policy configuration plus customization
C. process configuration only
D. process configuration plus customization
Answer: B

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NO.28 You create a new custom type with the following attributes:
c_product string(32)
c_platform string(32)
What is created in the database (DB)?
A. a single DB table only
B. two DB tables only
C. a single DB table and four DB views
D. two DB tables and two DB views
Answer: C

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NO.29 An Enterprise Architect (EA) who has no knowledge on Documentum proposes a distributed
architecture for a Document and Process Management solution. The architect suggests creating web
services using SOAP 1.2 and JAX-WS, a Data Access Layer with POJO objects using Documentum
Foundation Classes (DFC) and Documentum Repository. The EA believes that this architecture will yield
better performance for large content transfer, and the ability to replace Documentum with any Content
Management Solution (CMS) without much impact on the system.
As a Documentum application architect, you need to validate and provide input on this architecture. You
must consider that the system must have reusable components and reduce development time.
What should you do?
A. approve the proposed architecture because the EA has overall knowledge about the enterprise
B. recommend building a custom solution with DFC and no web services, because DFC will give much
better performance
C. recommend using DFS and extending it as needed
D. recommend building web services using the REST framework and DFC to access the Documentum
Repository
Answer: C

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NO.30 You are building a solution to automate a Grants Management Process. Your workflow involves
searching documents in an external non-Documentum Repository. You also need to generate a graphical
report on auto activities.
Which EMC product combination achieves this?
A. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), TaskSpace
B. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor(BAM), Webtop
C. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
D. Workflow Manager, Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-016
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Storage Networking Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 A redundant switch contains eight-port cards with four ports per card. If one of the port cards is
unavailable for eight minutes before it is hot swapped, what is the resultant path minute of SAN
performance degradation?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company is deploying a new application. During the requirements gathering process, your team has
documented several key company requirements.
What could be a key functional requirement?
A. Copying data to three different locations
B. Lower storage footprint
C. Interoperability with the existing infrastructure
D. Low administrative costs per TB/storage
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company's IT organization is comparing two technology proposals. Option 1 would retain existing
legacy equipment while Option 2 would replace the existing infrastructure.
Option 1:
-Total operational costs = $300,000 per year -Annual storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial investment = $1,000,000 -Recurring annual operational costs = $150,000 per year -Annual storage
requirements = $50,000 per year
The company's write-off costs for the legacy equipment is $50,000. As a business analyst using a TCO
analysis, which course of action would you recommend?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
D. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company wants to invest in a storage networking project. What are the key business value
parameters that must be considered when making a decision to proceed with the investment?
A. Return on investment and payback period
B. Net present value and break-even point
C. Net present value and return on investment
D. Payback period and operating cost
Answer: A

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NO.5 An organization purchased a NAS storage infrastructure to service all its applications for three years.
Various cost components for this deployment are as follows:
- Initial cost includes the purchase cost of $2,000 and an installation charge of $400.
- Organization needs to pay $200 per year for maintenance and $100 per year as license fees.
- From Year 2, the organization must pay $1,000 per year for OS upgrades.
At the end of the three years, the organization needs to pay a recycling fee of $50 to dispose of the NAS
device that will no longer be needed.
What is the total cost of ownership (TCO) each year to implement this technology infrastructure?
A. $1,783
B. $2,675
C. $3,566
D. $5,350
Answer: A

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NO.6 After careful consideration, a business has decided to implement thin provisioning in its SAN
environment. Implementing thin provisioning will require the following investment:
- License costs = $100,000
- Other one-time costs (for example, training, installation) = $50,000 Continuing as is, storage
requirement projections over the next three years would total 70 TB. Employing thin provisioning will allow
the storage requirements to be reduced to 40 TB. The cost of storage is $40,000 per TB.
What is the return on investment (ROI) percentage for this project?
A. 7
B. 70
C. 700
D. 7000
Answer: C

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NO.7 A company's 20 file servers were consolidated onto a NAS device at a cost of $350,000 for the
hardware and $75,000 for implementation services. The consolidated/replaced servers were written off
for the remaining book value of $75,000. The company will realize $60,000 per month due to this
consolidation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company's initial
investments?
A. 44%; Month 8
B. 44%; Month 9
C. 70%; Month 8
D. 70%; Month 9
Answer: B

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NO.8 An organization is using cloud storage to back up their employees
desktop data. The backup
application running at the organization s data center ensures moderate performance while backing up
data.
The application completes the entire backup within the stipulated backup window. By leveraging cloud
storage service, the backup application meets high-availability and high-recoverability requirements of
employees
data.
Based on the exhibit, which section accurately represents this application?
A. A
B. C
C. D
D. F
Answer: C

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NO.9 A multi-national bank provides online services to its customers. The bank has implemented a new credit
risk analysis system with data mining capabilities. In addition, the bank wants to provide enhanced
business intelligence to its loan officers.
The application development team has determined a 20 TB storage requirement. Which application
class(es) describe(s) this environment?
A. Enterprise
B. Workgroup
C. Externally networked
D. Workgroup and externally networked
Answer: A

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NO.10 The Present Value (PV) of $50,000 in 5 years, with a discount rate of 10% each year, is represented in
the exhibit.
A company invests $98,000 on new monitoring software for its critical database. An annual yield of
$50,000 is expected.
What is the first time the company will see its investment yielding positive returns?
A. Year 1
B. Year 2
C. Year 3
D. Year 4
Answer: C

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NO.11 Areas A, B, and C are three performance segments that represent demands of application classes.
Which application performance need is illustrated by Segment C in the exhibit?
A. Throughput
B. Availability
C. Interoperability
D. Ease of management
Answer: A

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NO.12 A company is comparing two technology options for their IT environment. Option 1 is to retain the
existing legacy environment, and Option 2 will require the replacement of the current solution with a new
solution.
Option 1:
-Operation costs including maintenance of the current infrastructure = $300,000 per year -Investment in
additional storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial cost of the new solution = $1,000,000 -Operation costs with the new infrastructure = $150,000 per
year -Investment in additional storage = $50,000 per year
The company's write-off cost for the current solution is $50,000. As a business analyst, what would you
recommend to the company based on the TCO?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
D. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
Answer: A

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NO.13 A company's business operations depend on the following three applications:
A = Supply chain management
B = CAD/CAE (design)
C = e-Commerce
Which application classes are associated with these applications?
A. A=Enterprise; B=Workgroup; C=Externally networked
B. A=Externally networked; B=Workgroup; C=Enterprise
C. A=Workgroup; B=Enterprise; C=Externally networked
D. A=Workgroup; B=Externally networked; C=Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.14 Areas A, B, and C are three performance segments that represent demands of application classes.
Which application performance need is illustrated by Segment B in the exhibit.?
A. Availability
B. Interoperability
C. Ease of management
D. Throughput
Answer: A

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NO.15 A director contains eight port cards with four ports per card. If two of the director's port cards are
unavailable for five minutes, what is the path minute of SAN performance degradation?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 32
D. 40
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: E20-594
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 Which backup level(s) does the EMC Avamar SQL Plug-in support?
A.Full and Incremental only
B.Full, Differential, and Incremental
C.Full only
D.Full and Differential only
Answer:B

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NO.2 Which hash represents each data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A.root
B.composite
C.atomic
D.file metadata
Answer:C

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NO.3 Which field within the DPN Summary report indicates how much data has been transferred to the EMC
Avamar server?
A.ModSent
B.Overhead
C.ModReduced
D.TotalBytes
Answer:A

EMC   E20-594   E20-594

NO.4 What is the default IP address assigned to the management port of an EMC Avamar Data Store node?
A.10.99.99.1
B.10.99.99.99
C.10.99.99.5
D.10.99.99.0
Answer:C

EMC   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594

NO.5 Which mode(s) of EMC Avamar replication allows for many-to-one and bi-directional replication?
A.Normal
B.Root-to-root
C.Full Copy
D.Normal and root-to-root
Answer:A

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NO.6 What is the access mode of the server during an EMC Avamar checkpoint maintenance activity?
A.Read-only during checkpoint creation; read-write for the remainder of the activity
B.Read-only throughout the activity
C.Access is disabled during checkpoint creation; read-only for the remainder of the activity
D.Access is disabled throughout the activity
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system?
A.28001
B.27000
C.26000
D.28002
Answer:D

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NO.8 Garbage collection is running on an EMC Avamar server. What activities can be performed at this time?
A.Delete backups, and change retention settings
B.Restore, browse existing backups, and queue backups
C.Restore, delete backups, and add new clients
D.Change retention settings, and modify clients and domains
Answer:B

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NO.9 The EMC Avamar backup administrator is starting an ad-hoc backup using the Avamar Administrator
interface. However, you notice that avtar is not starting on the client.
Where is the first place you should look to begin troubleshooting?
A.err.log
B.avtar.log
C.avscc.log
D.avagent.log
Answer:D

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NO.10 What does an HFS check do?
A.Validates the integrity of a checkpoint
B.Performs server checkpoint rollbacks
C.Performs a snapshot of an Avamar server
D.Checks for RAID controller errors
Answer:A

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NO.11 By default, where are the EMC Avamar files located on a Solaris client?
A./opt/AVMRclnt
B./opt/bin/avmrclnt
C./opt/lib/avmrclnt
D./usr/sbin/AVMRclnt
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which port does EMC Avamar use to access the Management Console database for reporting?
A.7778
B.5555
C.28002
D.29000
Answer:B

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NO.13 What is the default duration of the Backup window in EMC Avamar?
A.8 hours
B.12 hours
C.6 hours
D.10 hours
Answer:B

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NO.14 What is the recommended replication method for moving all data and clients from a single node to a
multinode EMC Avamar server?
A./REPLICATE replication
B.Normal replication
C.Selective replication
D.Root-to-root replication
Answer:D

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NO.15 What would you run to determine if your EMC Avamar server is running in a steady state?
A.status.dpn
B.healthcheck.pl
C.capacity.sh
D.dpnctl status
Answer:C

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