Dernières Avaya 6203-1 3600 6001-1 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 6203-1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Voice Portal Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 3600
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 6001-1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Session Manager and System Manager)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 How is Call Admission Control enabled?
A. Call Admission Control is enabled in the SIP Entity by specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per fall
and Managed Bandwidth
B. Call Admission Control is enabled on the Session Manager instance by specifying a value
for Average
bandwidth per can and Managed Bandwidth
C. Call Admission Control is enabled on a Location by specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per can
and Managed Bandwidth
D. Call Admission Control is enabled on an Entity Link specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per can
and Managed Bandwidth on the Location screen in Session Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which definition describes a Session Manager community?
A. A community represents a group of users in a single location or group of locations. A
community helps
define maximum numbers of users in each location for purposes of bandwidth management,
quality of
service, and Call Admissions Control
B. A community is a group of peer Session Manager instances in an enterprise organization.
Each
Session Manager in the community automatically shares configuration and policy data,
meaning that
administrators settings and policies only once and that all Session Managers will process
requests in the
same way
C. A community represents all SIP Entities known to a Session Manager it is through the
community that
data from SIP Entities can be collected and merged, ready tor easy analysis
D. A community is a sub-divided group of users in which half of the group make use of one
Session
Manager as their Primary while the other half make use of a different Session Manager as
their Primary
Each half also makes use of the other Session Manager as their Secondary for purposes of
redundancy
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two statements describe how adaptations affect the routing of a request?
(Choose two)
A. Session Manager matches the dialed digits after applying any administered incoming
adaptation
B. Session Manager matches the dialed digits after applying any administered outgoing
adaptation
C. Session Manager matches the dialed digits before applying any administered incoming
adaptation
D. Session Manager matches the dialed digits before applying any administered outgoing
adaptation
Answer: A, D

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NO.4 Session Manager has a routing policy that routes calls made to any number beginning
with 100
to SIP
Entity X. However, sip: 1001@avaya com
is the SP communication profile address of user Y, User Y is
not currently registered (signed in )with Session Manager What will happen if Session
Manager receives
a call addressed to sip 1001@avaya com
and exactly why?
A. It depends on the time ranges of the policy If the call is placed inside a defined tine range
for the policy,
the call will be routed to destination X If not, then Session Manager will attempt to route the
call to user Y.
Since Y is not registered, the call will timeout, and the call will fail
B. Since user Y is not currently registered, the call will be handled by the routing policy. If the
call is placed
during a time rage specified by the call policy, then the call will be routed to destination X. If
not, then the
call will fail
C. Since the destination URI matches a communication profile SIP handle, Session Manager
will not use
the routing policy in handing the call The call will fail since user Y is not currently registered
D. Since the destination URI matches a routing policy dial pattern, Session Manager will give
no
consideration to the user Y registration status, xx the call is made during a time rage for the
policy, the
policy will be applied and the will be routed to be destination X. If not, then the orignal URL of
sip
1001@avaya com will be used as the destination to which Session Manager will route the
call
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are two outcomes of running SMnetSetup on a server that has an existing
installation of Session
Manager? (Choose two)
A. The network and date/time is configured on the server
B. A system administrator login will be created
C. The same version of the Session Manager software currently installed is re-installed
D. The current version of the Session Manager software is upgraded
Answer: A, B

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NO.6 An IMS type feature server has been installed by another administrator beam. They
have also
configured Session Manager to route all incoming calls for user John Smith to be routed to
the new
feature server, It appears from traces and capturing network traffic that Session Manager
does indeed
route john Smith s incoming calls to the feature server, but that the feature server does not
appear to take
any action besides returning the request bock to Session Manager Which field has been
NCORRECTLY
configured?
A. Application Handle
B. Entity Link port
C. Orignating Application Sequence
D. Terminating Application Sequence
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the benefit of using the Communication Profile Editor to modify users?
A. It allows an administrator to change all the values of the Communication Profile settings
for multiple
SIP System Manager users at one time
B. It allows an administrator to change the values of the Session Manager profile settings for
only a single
SIP System Manager user at one tine
C. It allows an administrator to change all the values of a User Profile for multiple SIP users
at one time
D. It allows an administrator to change all the values of a User Profile for multiple users at
one time
E. It allows an administrator to change the values of the Session Manager profile settings for
only a single
SIP System Manager users at one time
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which URL should be used to access the web console to deploy System Manager?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/Webconsole
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 3600
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

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NO.1 Traceout allows a route to be traced to a network using an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 CLI
command. In the command output, the possible range of w
values is 1-255.
The w
value represents wait time for what?
A. Start of command execution
B. Time to live
C. Per probe
D. Completion of traceout report
Answer: C

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NO.2 The trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Fn Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 configurations, which service class ensures that protocol
updates such as RIP and OSPF are able to get out of a heavily congested switch?
A. Bronze
B. Standard
C. Network Control
D. Premium Control
Answer: C

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NO.4 An Information Technology organization needs to determine whether they should upgrade their
existing Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches to release 5.0. Each chassis currently has both 8648GTR
8648TX modules. One of the features that the company requires is the ability to perform port mirroring on
multiple ports per module at a time.
What should be done to meet their port mirroring requirement when upgrading to software release 5.0?
A. Replace the existing modules with 8648GTRS modules,
B. Upgrade to ERS 8600 Release 5.0 without any hardware upgrade.
C. Replace the existing 8648TX modules with ERS 8648TXE for egress mirroring.
D. Recommend other means to capturing traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A technician is adding the Virtual link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) configuration to a
Converged Campus Solution where all Ethernet Routing Switches (ERSs) are directly connected without
intermediary WAN transport devices.
What are two recommended configuration tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Configure all links to use the same timeout value.
B. For the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) links, configure the long time-out value.
C. For the SMLT links, configure the long timeout value.
D. Configure all links to use a global reserved multicast MAC address for VLACP messages.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 A technician discovers that an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 cat5e copper link is intermittent.
The link connects a distant workstation to 8348GTX port 6/2. The cable path is undetermined at this point
and it is suspected to traverse many patch panels.
How can the ERS 8300 Time Domain reflectometer tool be of help in this situation?
A. The Virtual Circuit Test command config ethernet 6/2 vct test can detect opens, shorts, bad
terminations.
B. The virtual circuit Repair command config ethernet 6/2 vct repair can detect the bad cable pairs and
repair the cable by moving data to the good cable pairs.
C. The Virtual Circuit Echo command config ethernet 6/2 vct echo can detect the bad cable pairs only
when connected to another ERS 8300.
D. The Virtual Circuit Detect command config ethernet 6/2 vct detect can detect how many patch panels
are used between the device and switch and provide a percentage of dropped packets.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A technician is configuring 802.1Q tagging Virtual Link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) with
timeout and untagged frames to be discarded.
Which part of the network is being configured?
A. 1ST
B. the out-of-band management port
C. the edge access ports
D. the uplinks
Answer: D

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NO.8 To confirm that routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) will work on a set of VLANs, which network
design aspect should be considered?
A. RSMLT is enabled on each SMLT VLAN on which the function is required.
B. RSMLT is enabled on the VLAN group
C. Router 1 always owns the network
D. RSMLT is enabled on all SMLT VLANs
Answer: A

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NO.9 When multiple VLANs are used, Dynamic Host Control protocol (DHCP) relay is required to get the
DHCP information from the end user VLAN to the DHCP server.
Which statement about how to enable DHCP relay for a VLAN is true?
A. The physical VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
B. The IP address of the DHCP relay agent is used.
C. The IP address of the core server VLAN is used
D. The virtual VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
Answer: D

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NO.10 When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 using the default interface, the attempt
to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default interface is the CLI.
How is the ACLI interface obtained?
A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter 'no' at the default interface prompt.
Answer: C

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NO.11 The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 supports the feature IP VPN-Lite that does not require the use
of an MPLS network.
Which function does the ERS 8600 as a Provider Edge (PE) perform for IP VPN-Lite.?
A. The PE uses the Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF) instances to provide traffic separation
B. The PE provides route exchange with remote PE devices using OSPF.
C. The PE encapsulates the IP packets into the separate VPN-Lite VLANs for traffic separation
D. The PE incorporates Label Distribution Protocol across the core network to connect remote PE
devices.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which protocol can be used for end-to-end detection in a network as well as for point-to-point
detection?
A. LACP
B. VLACP
C. RSTP
D. MSTP
Answer: B

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NO.13 When configuring an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 redundant Installation for warm standby,
which protocol is used to give the fastest recalculation of large layer 3 topology by the standby CPU, after
a Master CPU failure?
A. STP
B. Rip
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is a characteristic of Routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) configuration?
A. RSMLT is only configured on edge SMLT connections.
B. RSMLT uses priority values to distinguish between the primary and backup routers
C. RSMLT routers are implemented with Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF)-Lite routers
D. RSMLT is always used in conjunction with routing protocols and SMLT connections.
Answer: D

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NO.15 When incorporating Split Multi-Link Trunk (SMLT) on a pair of Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600
switches traffic from the edge of the network is directed to either ERS 8600. The ping-snoop feature
assists in determining which path the traffic is taking.
How does the ping-snoop operation work?
Determining which path the traffic is taking. How does the ping-snoop operation work?
A. Ping-snoop looks at the IP header and directs traffic to designated link.
B. Ping-snoop looks at the MAC header and directs traffic to the designated link
C. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the IP flow specified in the ping-snoop command.
D. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the MAC header (source and destination) specified in the
ping-snoop command.
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is Enterprise Policy Manager (EPM) used for in an Enterprise network?
A. to manage traffic prioritization and network access security for business applications
B. as an alternative to EA servers
C. to distribute control of packet classification for resiliency and efficiency
D. to assign user role attributes on the RADIUS server
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which VLAN/VLANS should be included on the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) for a proper functioning split
Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT) configuration?
A. only VLAN 101
B. only VLAN 1 and the 1ST
C. only the VLANs that are also included on the SMLT/SLT uplinks
D. the 1ST VWN and all the vWNs that are included on all SMLT/SLT links
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which feature can be used on a Split Multi Link Trunking (SMLT) with a Sod Down option?
A. Extended control packet limit (ext-CP)
B. Discard untagged frames
C. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol (SLPP)
D. Virtual Link Aggregation Protocol (VLACP)
Answer: A

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NO.19 One of the benefits of the Ethernet Routing switch (ERS) 8300 switch is its ability to provide
power-over-Ethernet (PoE). When implementing PoE on the ERS 8300 there are certain power supply
requirements to consider. The 8301AC produces 1140W and 1770W and the 8302AC produces 850W
and 1400W depending on the input voltage for both cases.
If there are eight 8648TX-PWR modules in a chassis, each needing 200W for Powered Devices (PI))
which power supply configuration is recommended?
A. One 8301AC power supply with 240VAC input voltage
B. Two 8302AC power supplies with 120VAC input voltage
C. Three 83CAC power supplies with 240VAC input voltage
D. Two 8301AC and one 8302Ac for redundancy with 240VAC input voltage
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which set of procedures will upgrade the boot monitor on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 with
a single 8692SF module?
A. Copy the new image to flash.
Activate the new image with SF module in service.
B. Copy the new image to flash.
Boot the new image.
C. Modify the boot choice for run-time image.
Boot the new image.
D. Copy the new image to flash.
Modify the boot choice for run-time image.
Boot the new image.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 3600
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

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NO.1 When incorporating Split Multi-Link Trunk (SMLT) on a pair of Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600
switches traffic from the edge of the network is directed to either ERS 8600. The ping-snoop feature
assists in determining which path the traffic is taking.
How does the ping-snoop operation work?
Determining which path the traffic is taking. How does the ping-snoop operation work?
A. Ping-snoop looks at the IP header and directs traffic to designated link.
B. Ping-snoop looks at the MAC header and directs traffic to the designated link
C. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the IP flow specified in the ping-snoop command.
D. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the MAC header (source and destination) specified in the
ping-snoop command.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which protocol can be used for end-to-end detection in a network as well as for point-to-point
detection?
A. LACP
B. VLACP
C. RSTP
D. MSTP
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which VLAN/VLANS should be included on the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) for a proper functioning split
Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT) configuration?
A. only VLAN 101
B. only VLAN 1 and the 1ST
C. only the VLANs that are also included on the SMLT/SLT uplinks
D. the 1ST VWN and all the vWNs that are included on all SMLT/SLT links
Answer: D

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NO.4 The trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.
Answer: B

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NO.5 When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 using the default interface, the attempt
to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default interface is the CLI.
How is the ACLI interface obtained?
A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter 'no' at the default interface prompt.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A technician discovers that an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 cat5e copper link is intermittent.
The link connects a distant workstation to 8348GTX port 6/2. The cable path is undetermined at this point
and it is suspected to traverse many patch panels.
How can the ERS 8300 Time Domain reflectometer tool be of help in this situation?
A. The Virtual Circuit Test command config ethernet 6/2 vct test can detect opens, shorts, bad
terminations.
B. The virtual circuit Repair command config ethernet 6/2 vct repair can detect the bad cable pairs and
repair the cable by moving data to the good cable pairs.
C. The Virtual Circuit Echo command config ethernet 6/2 vct echo can detect the bad cable pairs only
when connected to another ERS 8300.
D. The Virtual Circuit Detect command config ethernet 6/2 vct detect can detect how many patch panels
are used between the device and switch and provide a percentage of dropped packets.
Answer: A

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NO.7 One of the benefits of the Ethernet Routing switch (ERS) 8300 switch is its ability to provide
power-over-Ethernet (PoE). When implementing PoE on the ERS 8300 there are certain power supply
requirements to consider. The 8301AC produces 1140W and 1770W and the 8302AC produces 850W
and 1400W depending on the input voltage for both cases.
If there are eight 8648TX-PWR modules in a chassis, each needing 200W for Powered Devices (PI))
which power supply configuration is recommended?
A. One 8301AC power supply with 240VAC input voltage
B. Two 8302AC power supplies with 120VAC input voltage
C. Three 83CAC power supplies with 240VAC input voltage
D. Two 8301AC and one 8302Ac for redundancy with 240VAC input voltage
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which feature can be used on a Split Multi Link Trunking (SMLT) with a Sod Down option?
A. Extended control packet limit (ext-CP)
B. Discard untagged frames
C. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol (SLPP)
D. Virtual Link Aggregation Protocol (VLACP)
Answer: A

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NO.9 When multiple VLANs are used, Dynamic Host Control protocol (DHCP) relay is required to get the
DHCP information from the end user VLAN to the DHCP server.
Which statement about how to enable DHCP relay for a VLAN is true?
A. The physical VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
B. The IP address of the DHCP relay agent is used.
C. The IP address of the core server VLAN is used
D. The virtual VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
Answer: D

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NO.10 To confirm that routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) will work on a set of VLANs, which network
design aspect should be considered?
A. RSMLT is enabled on each SMLT VLAN on which the function is required.
B. RSMLT is enabled on the VLAN group
C. Router 1 always owns the network
D. RSMLT is enabled on all SMLT VLANs
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is Enterprise Policy Manager (EPM) used for in an Enterprise network?
A. to manage traffic prioritization and network access security for business applications
B. as an alternative to EA servers
C. to distribute control of packet classification for resiliency and efficiency
D. to assign user role attributes on the RADIUS server
Answer: A

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NO.12 An Information Technology organization needs to determine whether they should upgrade their
existing Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches to release 5.0. Each chassis currently has both 8648GTR
8648TX modules. One of the features that the company requires is the ability to perform port mirroring on
multiple ports per module at a time.
What should be done to meet their port mirroring requirement when upgrading to software release 5.0?
A. Replace the existing modules with 8648GTRS modules,
B. Upgrade to ERS 8600 Release 5.0 without any hardware upgrade.
C. Replace the existing 8648TX modules with ERS 8648TXE for egress mirroring.
D. Recommend other means to capturing traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Traceout allows a route to be traced to a network using an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 CLI
command. In the command output, the possible range of w
values is 1-255.
The w
value represents wait time for what?
A. Start of command execution
B. Time to live
C. Per probe
D. Completion of traceout report
Answer: C

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NO.14 When configuring an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 redundant Installation for warm standby,
which protocol is used to give the fastest recalculation of large layer 3 topology by the standby CPU, after
a Master CPU failure?
A. STP
B. Rip
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Answer: C

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NO.15 A technician is configuring 802.1Q tagging Virtual Link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) with
timeout and untagged frames to be discarded.
Which part of the network is being configured?
A. 1ST
B. the out-of-band management port
C. the edge access ports
D. the uplinks
Answer: D

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NO.16 Fn Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 configurations, which service class ensures that protocol
updates such as RIP and OSPF are able to get out of a heavily congested switch?
A. Bronze
B. Standard
C. Network Control
D. Premium Control
Answer: C

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NO.17 A technician is adding the Virtual link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) configuration to a
Converged Campus Solution where all Ethernet Routing Switches (ERSs) are directly connected without
intermediary WAN transport devices.
What are two recommended configuration tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Configure all links to use the same timeout value.
B. For the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) links, configure the long time-out value.
C. For the SMLT links, configure the long timeout value.
D. Configure all links to use a global reserved multicast MAC address for VLACP messages.
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 Which set of procedures will upgrade the boot monitor on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 with
a single 8692SF module?
A. Copy the new image to flash.
Activate the new image with SF module in service.
B. Copy the new image to flash.
Boot the new image.
C. Modify the boot choice for run-time image.
Boot the new image.
D. Copy the new image to flash.
Modify the boot choice for run-time image.
Boot the new image.
Answer: B

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NO.19 The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 supports the feature IP VPN-Lite that does not require the use
of an MPLS network.
Which function does the ERS 8600 as a Provider Edge (PE) perform for IP VPN-Lite.?
A. The PE uses the Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF) instances to provide traffic separation
B. The PE provides route exchange with remote PE devices using OSPF.
C. The PE encapsulates the IP packets into the separate VPN-Lite VLANs for traffic separation
D. The PE incorporates Label Distribution Protocol across the core network to connect remote PE
devices.
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is a characteristic of Routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) configuration?
A. RSMLT is only configured on edge SMLT connections.
B. RSMLT uses priority values to distinguish between the primary and backup routers
C. RSMLT routers are implemented with Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF)-Lite routers
D. RSMLT is always used in conjunction with routing protocols and SMLT connections.
Answer: D

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