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Code d'Examen: 250-407
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 / 7.x)
Questions et réponses: 133 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-250
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 Technical Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 126 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-513
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12)
Questions et réponses: 300 Q&As

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NO.1 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be
updated. Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have
been updated, the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the
database.
However, after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an
old date instead of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because
several policies were modified at the sametime.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though
the agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A system administrator deployed the Inventory Solution Agent Plug-in to 15,000 endpoints
across a company. Subsequently, the administrator realizes that the performance of the Notification
Server is slower during the inventory scan times.
Which two actions can be taken within Inventory Solution to reduce the processing impact on the
Notification Server during these times? (Select two.)
A. Create multiple policies on different schedules for subsets of computers.
B. Create a custom weekly schedule instead of using the default weeklyschedule.
C. Enable the priority setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
D. Use the AeXRunControl.exe program to randomize the collection of inventory.
E. Use the throttling setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the
Managed Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new
application.
What should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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NO.4 A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application.
During deployment, the administrator determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be
changed without modifying the MSI.
The administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package.
Which policies would be affected when the default install command line of a software package is
modified in the Software Catalog?
A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer
B. policies that leverage Software Discovery
C. policies currently referencing the modified entry
D. policies referencing staged software updates
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight
Alert Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running.
Which policy should the administrator configure?
A. Malware Blocking policy
B. Application Metering policy
C. Custom Inventory policy
D. Software Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.6 A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called "Solitaire
2099" has been installed on company desktops.
The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the company standard browser
toolbar and needs to be removed immediately.
The administrator has also been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that
they can receive a private email about the situation.
Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)
A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an
application.B.Inventory Solution automatically associates software titles to users.
B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.
C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application isexecuted.
D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application
from running on company computers.
Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5)
Questions et réponses: 200 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12)
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NO.1 A DLP administrator needs to decide if using Symantec Management Console (SMC) will
provide additional functionality over the built-in Agent Actions that can be performed via Agents >
Overview > Summary Reports.
What are two of the Agent Actions that can be performed with SMC that are unable to be used with
the built-in Agent Actions? (Select two.)
A. Set Under Investigation
B. Get Agent Configuration
C. Toggle Print Screen
D. Set Log Level
E. Gather Endpoint detection server logs
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 You have a Storage Foundation 5.0 server named SrvA connected to SrvB, which is a cloned
server of SrvA. SrvA is able to recognize the quick I/O (QIO) files. However, SrvB is unable to
recognize the quick I/O files. You have ensured that the file systems are the same on both the
servers. You want to ensure SrvB is able to recognize the quick I/O files.
What should you do? (Select two. Each correct answer presents part of the solution.)
A. Check the file system on both the servers.
B. Restart the Oracle instance to recognize the Quick I/O file.
C. Enable the Quick I/O on SrvB.
D. Enable the Quick I/O on SrvA.
E. Apply a new license for the cloned server, SrvB.
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 You need to create a volume for the HR department. You need to mount a file system with a
high demand for I/O throughput. You are aware that spanning the volume across multiple disks will
increase the I/O performance. Which risk should you be aware of when spanning the volume across
multiple disks?
A. Write throughput degradation
B. Single disk failure causes volume failure
C. Requirement for disk redundancy
D. Poor I/O performance
Answer: B

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NO.4 A DLP administrator needs to inspect HTTP traffic using a Network Monitor, including data
pushed up to the web and data pulled down from the web.
Which configuration changes should the administrator make under the advanced server settings to
include all cases?
A. L7.processGets=false, PacketCapture.DISCARD_HTTP_GET=true, L7.minSizeofGetURL=1000
B. L7.processGets=true, PacketCapture.DISCARD_HTTP_GET=true, L7.minSizeofGetURL=100
C. L7.processGets=false, PacketCapture.DISCARD_HTTP_GET=false, L7.minSizeofGetURL=10
D. L7.processGets=true, PacketCapture.DISCARD_HTTP_GET=false, L7.minSizeofGetURL=10
Answer: D

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NO.5 When attempting to log in as administrator to the UI, the administrator receives a login error:
Invalid Username/Password or Disabled Account
The DBA verifies the account is enabled. The information provided for the environment only
includes the DLP protect database username and password as well as a username and password
called Sys Admin\Admin.
How should the administrator change the built-in 'Administrator' password?
A. log in to the Enforce UI as the Sys Admin account and go to System > Login Management > DLP
Users and reset the administrator password
B. extract the administrator password from the DatabasePassword.properties file
C. update the PasswordEnforcement.properties file with a new administrator password
D. use the AdminPasswordReset utility to update the password
Answer: D

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NO.6 While working under Veritas Volume Manager, you want to put a disk under the Veritas
Volume Manager control. You execute the command vxdiskadd c0t1d0.
What is the result of this command?
A. The command puts first disk under VxVM control on the first controller.
B. The command initializes second disk on the first controller.
C. The command encapsulates the second disk on the first controller.
D. The command checks for the disks can be encapsulated.
Answer: B

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NO.7 While encapsulating a disk, you discover that a volume is removed as a part of the existing
configuration. You want to restore the data on the disk as it was before removal of the disk. As the
first step, you recreate the volume using the vxdg make command.
What should you do next?
A. Replace the disk
B. Restore the plexes on the volume
C. Restore the data on the volume
D. Start the hot-relocation process
Answer: C

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NO.8 What causes the majority of data loss prevention violations?
A. hackers exploit vulnerabilities and exfiltrate confidential data
B. companies lack security policies to prevent loss of confidential data
C. employees unintentionally expose confidential data
D. system backups are performed improperly
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5)
Questions et réponses: 200 Q&As

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NO.1 A named resource target contains 50 computers in the Sales Department. Several policies and
tasks are applied to this target. An administrator modifies one of these policies by changing this
target so that the policy now applies to 25 computers in the Engineering Department. How are the
policies and tasks affected?
A. Only the policy that the administrator changed is affected; all others only apply to the 50
computers in the Sales Department.
B. Only the policies and tasks that the administrator created are affected and apply to the 25
computers in the Engineering Department.
C. Every policy and task that applies to the target now applies to 75 computers in both the Sales and
Engineering Departments.
D. Every policy and task that applies to the target now only applies to the 25 computers in the
Engineering Department.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Refer to the Exhibit.
A target has been created with two rules: 1) 'exclude computers not in' filter Windows XP
Computers, and 2) 'include computers in' filter All Computers. There are 150 computers in the
Windows XP Computers filter. There are 200 computers in the All Computers filter. How many
computers will be in the target?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 200
D. 350
Answer: C

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NO.3 A Symantec Management Platform 7.5 administrator attempts to discover all network
resources using the ping function, and none are found. After conferring with the network
administrator, it is determined that ping is blocked on all network devices for security purposes.
Which other protocol can the administrator use to discover network devices using Network
Discovery?
A. CDP
B. HIP
C. ARP
D. RIP
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent
and stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console?
(Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.8 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task?
A. Clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. Right-click and select the task's properties
C. Clone the source folder of the sample
D. Clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Mail Security 8300 Series (STS))
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 6.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-074
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Mgmt Platform 7.0 with Notification Server (STS))
Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-066
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 91 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows (STS))
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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS))
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NO.1 Which three are functions of the Control Center? (Select three.)
A. Consolidates logging information
B. Houses Email Spam Quarantine messages
C. Generates encrypted structured data indexes
D. Executes email policies
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 What is a key prerequisite for enabling the end-user Email Spam Quarantine feature?
A. Selecting the 'Delete messages sent to unresolved email addresses' option
B. Importing a list of allowed users on the Quarantine Setup page
C. Defining an LDAP source for synchronization
D. Defining an LDAP source for authentication
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the function of the DNS MX record?
A. Specifies the IP addresses for gateway email servers that process Internet traffic
B. Redirects internal IM traffic to the 8300 Series to enforce IM security
C. Specifies the hostnames that accept SMTP email for a domain and the priority in which the hostnames
should be tried
D. Identifies the IP addresses associated with host names
Answer: C

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NO.4 Under which condition is the 'Strip and Hold in Suspect Virus Quarantine' action available for use?
A. If a message is unscannable for viruses
B. If a message contains a suspicious attachment
C. If a message contains a mass-mailing worm
D. If a message contains a virus
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the function of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 Transformation Engine?
A. Based on configured policies, performs the required actions on the message
B. Based on configured policies, scans the message for attributes and violations
C. Based on default policies, stores spam and virus messages
D. Based on default policies, provides automated synchronization from LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is a content filtering capability of Symantec Mail Security 8300?
A. True file type scanning
B. Advanced phishing capability
C. Custom sieve editor
D. Word stemming analysis
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300?
(Select two.)
A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default
B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance
C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis
D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access
E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention
Answer: CD

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NO.8 What is the key purpose of the Alerts feature of the Control Center?
A. Sends email alerts to administrators or other parties
B. Sends SNMP notifications to administrators or other parties
C. Informs Symantec Mail Security 8300 administrators of antispam attacks detected by Symantec
D. Sends email notifications to senders who violate configured email security policies
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two Symantec Mail Security 8300 Control Center components can be used to store email
security violations? (Select two.)
A. Suspect virus quarantine
B. Email virus logging
C. Message audit logs
D. Email spam quarantine
E. Instant message quarantine
Answer: AD

Symantec examen   certification ST0-030   ST0-030

NO.10 Which statement is true about Content Compliance policies?
A. Available linked compound conditions include AND, OR, XOR, and NOT.
B. They are evaluated in the order listed on the main page of the Compliance tab.
C. There is a set limit to the number of conditions per compliance policy.
D. The order of conditions in a filter is important when a filter matches a message.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-030   ST0-030

NO.11 Which Symantec Mail Security 8300 component retrieves new and updated spam filters from
Symantec Security Response through secure HTTPS file transfer?
A. Conduit
B. Uplink
C. LiveUpdate
D. Sequencer
Answer: A

Symantec   certification ST0-030   ST0-030   certification ST0-030

NO.12 What is the recommended deployment location for Symantec Mail Security 8300?
A. In front of the external firewall
B. Behind the existing Exchange server
C. At the SMTP gateway
D. Integrated with the existing gateway SMTP server
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-030   ST0-030   ST0-030

NO.13 What must be true in the DNS set up to establish load sharing via DNS round robin across multiple
SMTP gateway servers?
A. The preference numbers or weightings of the MX records must be the same.
B. The Ptr records for the servers must point to the same hostname.
C. The load sharing attribute must reference a valid hardware load balancer with an externally routable IP
address.
D. The preference numbers of the A records must be set to 10.
Answer: A

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NO.14 On which two areas on the Control Center can you view license expiration status? (Select two.)
A. On the Control Center Dashboard
B. On the Licenses page
C. On the Alerts page
D. On the License Summary Report
Answer: AB

Symantec   ST0-030   ST0-030   ST0-030

NO.15 How does the LDAP synchronization process treat mail-enabled groups?
A. As a user list
B. As a distribution list
C. As domain groups
D. As an LDAP list
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ASC-090
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC IT Compliance 2010)
Questions et réponses: 137 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ASC-029
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC Enterprise Security 2010)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ASC-099
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC Archiving and eDiscovery 2010)
Questions et réponses: 94 Q&As

ASC-099 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/ASC-099.html

NO.1 What are two main components of Data Classification Services (DCS)? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server
B. Internet Information Services (IIS)
C. Oracle
D. Symantec Data Loss Prevention
E. Automatic Classification Engine
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 A consultant just deployed Domino Mailbox Archiving and is about to configure the Enable Mailbox
Message. Which file would need to be edited and placed in the root folder of Enterprise Vault installation?
A. EnableMailboxMessage.nsf
B. EVMessages.nsf
C. EnableMailboxMessageDomino.nsf
D. EVEnableMessage.nsf
Answer: B

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NO.3 How many Index Server Groups can a consultant associate with a Vault Store?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. eight
Answer: A

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NO.4 What should a consultant do when configuring the pagefile on a system running the Indexing Service.?
A. The pagefile should be located on volume where active indexes are located for best performance.
B. The pagefile should be set to be managed by the OS.
C. The pagefile should be set to 1x of the RAM.
D. The pagefile should be set to 1.5x of the RAM.
Answer: D

Symantec   ASC-099 examen   ASC-099   ASC-099

NO.5 Which two are benefits of using Data Classification Services with EV? (Select two.)
A. re-classify content that has already been archived
B. assign retention categories based on the item's content
C. automatically delete emails that are not critical business records
D. automatically place items on E-Discovery legal hold
E. direct integration with the Clearwell E-Discovery Platform
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 What should a consultant recommend to a customer as a post-engagement service offering?
A. ongoing tech support
B. review of the configuration report
C. thirty day post deployment guidance
D. periodic assessment
Answer: D

Symantec examen   certification ASC-099   ASC-099 examen   certification ASC-099

NO.7 Which two Enterprise Vault components require a dedicated SQL database? (Select two.)
A. Vault Store Group
B. Index Server Group
C. Vault Store
D. Index Volume
E. Vault Store partition
Answer: A,C

Symantec   ASC-099   ASC-099 examen

NO.8 Where can a consultant look to find diagnostic logging from an Enterprise Vault server installation?
A. Application Event Log
B. ev_client_log_[timestamp].txt
C. Symantec Enterprise Vault Event Log
D. EVinstall.log
Answer: D

Symantec   ASC-099   ASC-099 examen   certification ASC-099

NO.9 What are two valid names for the scripts provided on the Enterprise Vault media to assist in configuring
the Vault Service Account (VSA)? (Select two.)
A. SetEVServicePermissions.ps1
B. SetEVExchangePermissions.ps1
C. SetEVThrottlingPolicy.ps1
D. SetExchangeThrottlingPolicy.ps1
E. SetEVExchThrottingPermissions.ps1
Answer: B,C

Symantec   ASC-099   certification ASC-099   ASC-099

NO.10 Which two ways should a consultant prioritize identifiable project risks as part of a mitigation strategy?
(Select two.)
A. probability of risk
B. sequence of risk occurrence
C. level of inconvenience to the customer
D. impact to the project success
E. visibility to senior management
Answer: A,D

Symantec   ASC-099   certification ASC-099   ASC-099   ASC-099

NO.11 What is the minimum amount of memory required to support 64-bit Indexing?
A. 2GB
B. 4GB
C. 8GB
D. 16GB
Answer: C

Symantec   certification ASC-099   ASC-099   ASC-099   certification ASC-099   certification ASC-099

NO.12 Which two prerequisites are required to install the Enterprise Vault Administration Console on a
stand-alone workstation? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Internet Explorer Web Controls
B. Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 or higher
C. Microsoft Windows Administration Tools Pack
D. Microsoft Internet Information Services
E. Microsoft Exchange Management Console
Answer: B,C

Symantec   ASC-099 examen   ASC-099   ASC-099   certification ASC-099

NO.13 In order to back up Enterprise Vault with NetBackup, which Enterprise Vault components require the
NetBackup client?
A. the Exchange Server, the EV Server, and the Discovery Accelerator Server
B. the Exchange Server, the EV Server, and the SQL Server
C. the EV Server and the DA Server
D. the EV Server and the SQL Server
Answer: D

Symantec   ASC-099   ASC-099 examen   ASC-099

NO.14 A consultant must calculate the EV archival rate while delivering an assessment service. Which
database should a consultant query to calculate the archival rate?
A. Directory Database
B. Fingerprint Database
C. Vault Store Database
D. FSA Reporting Database
Answer: C

Symantec   ASC-099 examen   ASC-099 examen   ASC-099   ASC-099

NO.15 Who will be responsible for post-engagement technical support if a consultant fails to educate the
customer on the support process?
A. the consultant
B. Symantec Support
C. the customer
D. the project manager
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 250-371
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-316
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2012)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-271
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for UNIX)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-149
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 Windows Technical Assessment )
Questions et réponses: 171 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator tries to suspend an active job from the Symantec NetBackup Activity Monitor but
discovers that the option is grayed out. What is preventing the administrator from suspending the job?
A. Encryption is enabled.
B. The parent job is still active.
C. Multiplexing is enabled.
D. Checkpoint restart is disabled.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters. What can be done so that Symantec NetBackup 7.5 uses the same characters as
before the firmware upgrade occurred?
A. update the Media ID Generation setting
B. update the Robot Type mapping
C. update the Media Type mapping
D. update the Barcode Rules setting
Answer: A

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NO.3 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 master server has a Microsoft Windows policy that protects over 500
servers using the directive ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES. The backup window for this policy is between
3:00 PM and 5:00 PM and is unshared with any other policy. When the backup window for this policy is
open, the overall performance of the disk storage unit gets degraded. Which setting should the
administrator modify to reduce the number of concurrent streams writing to the disk storage unit to 10
during the backup window?
A. disable multiplexing on the policy schedules
B. set the "Maximum backup copies" host property to 10
C. enable multiplexing for the storage unit and set the value to 10
D. enable the "Limit Jobs per policy" attribute
Answer: D

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NO.4 During catalog recovery the DR file is unavailable but the images database is intact. Which step should
the administrator take first to resolve the issue?
A. identify catalog backup from the images database
B. run import on all media in the robot
C. import catalog image to disk to a temporary location
D. run bprecover -wizard from the command line with additional switches
Answer: A

Symantec   250-371 examen   250-371   250-371 examen

NO.5 By default, new media is assigned to which volume pool during robot inventory without a configured
barcode rule?
A. Symantec NetBackup pool
B. Scratch pool
C. Default pool
D. None pool
Answer: A

Symantec   250-371   250-371 examen

NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
What will be the outcome of the policy shown in the exhibit?
A. The client will compress then encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
B. The client will compress the data and then the media server will use tape drive encryption.
C. The client will send the data to the media server, which will compress and then encrypt the data.
D. The client will encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
Answer: A

Symantec   250-371   250-371   250-371 examen

NO.7 Which two are used to change the status of a disk pool? (Select two.)
A. Nbdevquery
B. Device Monitor
C. Devices > Disk Pools
D. Nbdevstatus
E. nbdevconfig
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 An administrator needs to protect a large volume of data with millions of files to tape. Which policy
feature should the administrator use?
A. Use accelerator
B. Deduplication
C. Use multiple streams
D. FlashBackup
Answer: D

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NO.9 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator at a hospital needs to store secure tape copies of protected
data to an offsite location. How can an administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create
detailed reports.?
A. enable the Encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports
B. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a Vault policy to perform automated ejects
and create reports
C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform
automated ejects and create reports
D. configure a storage lifecycle policy to enable automatic ejects and create reports, then enable the
Encryption attribute on the policy
Answer: B

Symantec examen   250-371 examen   250-371

NO.10 An administrator must recover an expired image from a tape where only one remaining copy exists
and there are other unexpired images on the tape. How should the administrator proceed?
A. run the Tape Contents report
B. run an import on the tape
C. duplicate the unexpired images
D. verify the tape
Answer: B

Symantec   250-371   250-371   250-371   250-371

NO.11 An administrator has a tape that has been previously used by Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for client
backups but no longer contains valid data. The barcode has been changed and the tape has been moved
to a different Symantec NetBackup domain. Which action will allow this tape to be used in the new
domain?
A. move the tape to the scratch volume pool
B. relabel the tape
C. deassign the media
D. inventory the robotic library
Answer: B

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NO.12 A backup has allocated a tape labeled SQL001 for a SQL backup job from the scratch pool and has
assigned this tape to the Symantec NetBackup volume pool. An administrator now needs to move
SQL001 to a previously created volume pool called SQLTapes. How is this accomplished?
A. right-click SQL001 and select Change
B. expire SQL001, right-click SQL001, and select Change
C. right-click SQL001 and select Move
D. edit the barcode rules and inventory the library
Answer: B

certification Symantec   250-371   certification 250-371   250-371

NO.13 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup is about to run, which is being sent to the "servers" volume pool, with a retention level of
1. The host properties displayed below have been enabled. allow multiple retentions per media allow
backups to span tape media allow media overwrite: ANSI, CPIO, DBR Which tape would Symantec
NetBackup 7.5 use for the backup if tape T00306 is unavailable?
A. T00301
B. T00303
C. T00305
D. T00308
E. T00309
Answer: C

Symantec examen   certification 250-371   certification 250-371   250-371

NO.14 A backup on tape is due to expire in one week. The administrator needs to keep the image available
for restore indefinitely. Which two methods can be used to accomplish this goal? (Select two.)
A. use the bpexpdate command to change the expiration date of the image
B. use the bpretlevel command to customize the retention level
C. use the bpimmedia command to freeze the tape
D. use the bpduplicate command to create a copy with an infinite retention
E. use the vmchange command to change the expiration date of the tape
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 The Symantec NetBackup administrator is concerned that the media server deduplication pool is using
more space than estimated. In which two places can the administrator find the amount of space used in
the media server deduplication pool? (Select two.)
A. Reports > Disk Storage Status
B. Device Monitor > Disk Pools
C. Reports > Disk Logs
D. Devices > Disk Pools
E. Reports > Disk Pool Status
Answer: D,E

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Code d'Examen: ST0-074
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Mgmt Platform 7.0 with Notification Server (STS))
Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

ST0-074 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/ST0-074.html

NO.1 How is resource scoping implemented?
A. By granting the permissions to appropriate Organizational Views and Groups to a security role.
B. By including the appropriate filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target's rules.
C. By replacing the filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections.
D. By creating multiple Organizational Views and Groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What must be enabled for a collection of Notification Servers to share common configuration settings
and data?
A. Hierarchy Feature
B. Inventory Forwarding
C. Client Policy Files
D. Site Maintenance Feature
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-074   ST0-074 examen

NO.3 What is the source of the information in the Resource Manager?
A. Configuration Management Database
B. Altiris data classes
C. SQL Server Master database
D. Configuration menu
Answer: A

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NO.4 What will occur if a resource is added to a second organizational group when it already belongs to
another organizational group within the same organizational view?
A. A duplicate resource will be created and given a new Globally Unique Identifier (GUID).
B. The resource will be removed from the first organizational group and placed in the second.
C. The resource will be listed twice in any target that includes either organizational group.
D. A resource association record will be created that links the two organizational groups.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-074   ST0-074

NO.5 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Choose two.)
A. Information related to the configuration of managed computers
B. An inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C. Software packages to install applications on managed computers
D. Symantec Management Platform core application settings
E. Settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

Symantec examen   ST0-074   certification ST0-074

NO.6 If you have multiple Notification Servers in your environment how many CMDBs are required?
A. One CMDB for each Notification Server
B. One CMDB for all Notification Servers
C. One CMDB for all Symantec Management Consoles
D. One CMDB for each Symantec Management Console
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-074 examen   ST0-074 examen

NO.7 Which service monitors the event queue?
A. Dispatcher Service
B. Receiver Service
C. Notification Service
D. SQL Service
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-074   ST0-074   ST0-074 examen

NO.8 Which Altiris component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A. Package Server
B. Task Server
C. Site Server
D. PXE Server
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-074   ST0-074

NO.9 Which item is true when migrating from Notification Server 6 to Notification Server 7?
A. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same server
B. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same database
C. Additional SQL, operating system, and Notification Server licenses are required
D. .NET 3.5, SQL Server 2005, and Windows 2003 must be installed for the migration to continue
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-074 examen   ST0-074

NO.10 Which Notification Server 7 process parses the Notification Server Event (NSE) into SQL Statements?
A. DataLoader
B. Dispatcher
C. Event Router
D. Event Queues
Answer: A

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NO.11 What troubleshooting tool is used to analyze SQL queries and .NET code blocks running in the
Notification Server and associated processes?
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Microsoft Perfmon
D. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which Symantec Management system feature is used to reduce Total Cost of Ownership (TCO), that
is, increase the efficiency of a single IT administrator?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Task Service
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.13 What Symantec Management system feature is used to off load processing from a Symantec
Management Platform?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Replication
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-074   ST0-074

NO.14 Which server role will conflict with the Notification Server?
A. Terminal Server
B. PXE Server
C. Domain Controller
D. FTP Server
Answer: C

certification Symantec   certification ST0-074   ST0-074

NO.15 Which pair contains Notification Server Event (NSE) queues?
A. Large and Small
B. Priority and Express
C. Fast and Slow
D. Default and System
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which feature characterizes the centralized management model?
A. A single IT management team
B. Language barriers between sites
C. A large company with subsidiaries
D. Several data centers
Answer: A

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NO.17 How are permissions assigned to resources in Notification Server 7?
A. Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B. Organizational Views
C. Access Control List (ACL)
D. Active Directory
Answer: B

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NO.18 How does Notification Server handle inventory and event data after reaching the Event Queues?
A. Client Message Dispatcher -> DataLoader -> OLEDB -> CMDB
B. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> CMDB
C. Client Message Dispatcher -> NSE Processor -> CMDB
D. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> XML -> CMDB
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which two troubleshooting tools are installed with the Symantec Management Platform? (Choose two.)
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Remote Altiris Agent Diagnostics
D. Microsoft Perfmon
E. WireShark Network Protocol Analyzer
Answer: AB

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NO.20 Which feature characterizes the decentralized management model?
A. Autonomous groups within your organization
B. A common maintenance schedule
C. A single data center
D. Limited number of remote sites
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-079
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 To reach Message Audit logs, which tab should be selected in the Brightmail Control Center?
A.Status
B.Administration
C.Reports
D.Compliance
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 What are two parts of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A.Message Store
B.LDAP Sync Service
C.Brightmail Engine
D.LiveUpdate Conduit
E.Suspect Virus Quarantine
ANSWER: BE

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NO.3 True file typing is a feature used to combat which behavior?
A.spamming
B.renaming
C.phishing
D.spimming
ANSWER: B

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NO.4 Which feature of Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 detects Non-Delivery Reports (NDR) created by an
attacker?
A.Directory Harvest Attack
B.Anti-Phishing Filter
C.Bounce Attack Prevention
D.Symantec Probe Network
ANSWER: C

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NO.5 Which feature requires Invalid Recipient Handling to be enabled?
A.Bounce Attack Prevention
B.Directory Harvest Attack recognition
C.Reputation Lookup
D.Fastpass
ANSWER: B

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NO.6 What is the Heuristic Detection (Bloodhound) feature designed to detect?
A.unknown viruses
B.fuzzy matches against compliance rules
C.regex matches
D.Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 What does the Fastpass feature do?
A.skips virus scanning for known viruses
B.skips resource intensive spam scanning steps
C.passes incoming mail directly to the downstream MTA
D.bypasses scanning on outgoing mail
ANSWER: B

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NO.8 In addition to storing messages for Spam Quarantine and Suspect Virus Quarantine, which type of
messages can the Control Center store?
A.notification messages
B.compliance triggered messages
C.delivered messages
D.deleted messages
ANSWER: B

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NO.9 Which two email authentication technologies are included in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0?
(Select two.)
A.Sender ID
B.POP before SMTP
C.Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM)
D.Certified Email
E.Sender Policy Framework (SPF)
ANSWER: AE

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NO.10 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A.It provides message management services.
B.It routes messages for delivery.
C.It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D.It downloads virus definitions.
E.It runs filters.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.11 Spam Rule sets are automatically downloaded from Symantec on a regular basis.
How often are these rule sets refreshed?
A.every 5 to 10 minutes
B.every 30 to 60 minutes
C.every 3 to 5 hours
D.every day
ANSWER: A

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NO.12 Which service retrieves new and updated email filters from Symantec Security Response through
HTTPS file transfer?
A.LiveUpdate
B.Conduit
C.Brightmail Engine
D.MTA
ANSWER: B

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NO.13 Which two tasks are performed by the SMTP session component of the MTA? (Select two.)
A.It verifies the IP address reputation with the BMServer.
B.It performs aliasing/masquerading for messages.
C.It reports the message as spam.
D.It applies the specified queue thresholds.
E.It interacts with the BMServer to access the filtering modules.
ANSWER: BD

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NO.14 A client needs to import structured customer data.
Which resource is used for this requirement?
A.records
B.dictionaries
C.regular expressions
D.patterns
ANSWER: A

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NO.15 What is the recommended hard-drive size for a scanner-only virtual machine?
A.60GB
B.80GB
C.100GB
D.160GB
ANSWER: A

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NO.16 Which MTA operation is used if incoming messages need to be stopped while waiting for new virus
definitions?
A.Accept and deliver messages normally
B.Pause message scanning and delivery
C.Do not accept incoming messages
D.Accept but do not scan incoming messages
ANSWER: B

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NO.17 An administrator has navigated through Status -> LDAP Synchronization.
Which tab will display details about an LDAP Synchronization?
A.LDAP to Scanners
B.LDAP to CC
C.LDAP Status
D.CC to LDAP
ANSWER: B

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NO.18 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A.Accept and deliver messages normally
B.Pause message scanning and delivery
C.Do not accept incoming messages
D.Accept but do not scan incoming messages
ANSWER: C

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NO.19 What is the minimum required memory size for virtual machine deployments?
A.1GB
B.2GB
C.4GB
D.6GB
ANSWER: B

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NO.20 What happens to a message that is forwarded to the Suspect Virus Quarantine?
A.It is automatically deleted after one week.
B.It is rescanned when the configured hold time has elapsed.
C.It is placed in the administrator's queue for review.
D.It is forwarded to Symantec Security Response.
ANSWER: B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-12X
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 5 for Unix(STS))
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 You are designing a large Veritas Cluster Server cluster. One of the requirements from the service
level agreement is that applications will be automatically moved from one system to another if the first
system's processor usage exceeds a configured threshold value.
Which component do you incorporate into the design to accomplish this?
A. ToleranceLimit service group attribute
B. Load failover policy
C. cpuusage trigger
D. UseCPU cluster attribute
Answer: C

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NO.2 You stopped Veritas Cluster Server on system node13. You now need to remove this node from the
cluster configuration. When you attempt to do this, you get an error message. What could cause this
error?
A. One or more system List attributes still contains node13.
B. Veritas Cluster Server must be completely shut down on all nodes.
C. The LL T driver on node13 was not stopped.
D. The GAB daemon on node13 was not stopped.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A Veritas Cluster Server design calls for a failover database service group and a failover middleware
service group to be dependent on each other such that the database and middleware are always running
on the same system.
Which type of service group dependency satisfies this design requirement?
A. online local
B. online remote
C. online global
D. online together
Answer: A

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NO.4 You need to remove the system named node04 from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster.
What is the command to failover any service groups running, then stop Veritas Cluster Server on that
system?
A. hastop -sys node04 -evacuate
B. haevac -remove -sys node04
C. haconf -stop -evac -sys node04
D. hasys node04 -local -failover -stop
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which network resource combination would you use for failovers of virtual IP addresses across
interfaces on a single system when NICs are connected to different subnets?
A. IP/NIC
B. IPMultiNIC/MultiNICA
C. IPMultiNICB/MultiNICB
D. IPMultiNICC/MultiNICC
Answer: B

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NO.6 How do you customize Veritas Cluster Server default behavior to alert someone whenever there is only
one heartbeat in a Veritas Cluster Server cluster?
A. The preinstalled violation trigger does this with no customization required.
B. Install the injeopardy trigger and customize it to perform the required alerting.
C. Configure the notifier to execute a customized script to perform the required alerting.
D. Develop a custom resource type and agent to monitor the Veritas Cluster Server heartbeat resources.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have a service group dependency:
If the child group faults, the parent group is taken offline. If the parent group faults, the child group remains
online. Which type of dependency is this an example of?
A. firm
B. hard
C. son
D. remote
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the location of the main Veritas Cluster Server configuration file?
A. /op/VRTSvcs/conf/config/
B. /etc/VRTSvcs/conf/
C./etc/VRTSvcs/conf/config/
D. /op/VRTSvcs/confi
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which resource is NOT considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online or not?
A. onOnly
B. OnOff
C. failover
D. parallel
Answer: A

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NO.10 You stopped Veritas Cluster Server on a system and completely removed the system from the Veritas
Cluster Server configuration. You now need to stop the GAB driver without shutting down the system.
Which command accomplishes this?
A. gabconfig-U
B. gabetl stop
C. gab-stop
D. gabdaemon uninstall
Answer: A

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NO.11 whicn feature of Veritas Cluster Server allows you to keep applications in separate groups while still
allowing control of the order they start?
A. service group dependencies
B. complementary events
C. replicated data clusters
D. notifications
Answer: A

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NO.12 what are two characteristics of a nard service group dependency? (choose two.)
A. Both parent and child groups fail over if a critical resource in the child group faults.
B. Only online local hard dependencies are supported.
C. If a critical resource in the parent group faults, the child group is taken offline before the parent group.
D. Bringing the parent online is allowed if the child is offline.
E. Only two parents and one child o group can be configured in a nard dependency.
Answer: A B

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NO.13 Which two are valid settings for FailoverPolicy? (Choose two.)
A. priority
B. RoundRobin
C. Order
D. Failover
E. SystemUst
Answer: A B

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NO.14 What should be expected during a failover when a service group is partially ONLINE?
A. The service group will become fully ONLINE on the target system.
B. The service group will become partially ONLINE on the target system.
C. The service group will go OFFLINE and remain OFFLINE.
D. The service group will become OFFLINE temporarily on the target system.
Answer: B

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NO.15 During a test of a NIC resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the service group
and the IP resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster. The NIC resource enters the
ONLINE state atter the root cause of the fault is corrected.
Which default attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?
A. AutoStart
B. AutoClear
C. AutoRestart
D. AutoFailover
Answer: C

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NO.16 A legacy managed host is a system managed by Storage Foundation Management Server and runs
__ .
A. Storage Foundation 4.x
B. Foundation Suite 3.x
C. Storage Replicator 4.x
D. Veritas Enterprise Administrator 3.x
Answer: A

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NO.17 What does the Veritas Cluster Server Cluster Manager Web Console require for high availability?
A. notification set to 0
B. a Microson Windows workstation
C. the vcsweb user account
D. a virtuallP address
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is a characteristic of Veritas Cluster Server service group dependencies?
A. Each parent service group can link with only three child service groups; however, a child service group
is not limited to the number of links to parent service groups.
B. If a parent service group with an online local firm group dependency faults, it will take the
corresponding child
C. A child service group will remain online if the dependent parent service group with an online local firm
group dependency faults.
D. A service group cannot be a child service group if its parent service group is a child of another group.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are adding a system named Systemc to an existing two-system cluster.
What must you do atter installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the
new system?
A. run hastart -newnode on the new system
B. run hasys -frorce System C on the new system
C. run haclus -adonode SystemC on any system
D. run hastart on the new system
Answer: D

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NO.20 You have a three-system cluster.
The cluster runs an application that depends on a database.
The application and database do not need to run on the same system.
If the database faults, you want the application to continue to run, unless the database cannot be
restarted on another system. Which type of service group dependency do you create to ensure this
behavior?
A. online global son, where the database is the parent
B. online global soft, where the application is the parent
C. online global firm, where the application is the parent
D. online global firm, where the database is the parent
Answer: B

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