Guide de formation plus récente de SCP SC0-501

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Code d'Examen: SC0-501
Nom d'Examen: SCP (Enterprise Security Implementation (ESI) )
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 If you receive an X.509 digital certificate that has a unique identifier, but has no extensions, what
version is the certificate?
A.It is a Version 2 certificate
B.It is a Version 3 certificate
C.It is a Version 1 certificate
D.All X.509 digital certificates have unique identifiers
E.The unique identifier is determined by implementation, not version number
Answer: A

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NO.2 If you are going to build a PKI you will need many different components. What is an industry standard
that you can build your PKI upon?
A.Contiguous distinguished name spaces
B.X.509v3 Certificates
C.A defined hierarchy of authorities
D.128-bit SHA1
E.128-bit MD5
Answer: B

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NO.3 There are many certificate templates built into Windows 2000 Certificate Servers. Which of the
following user templates are valid for client authentication?
A.Smart Card Logon
B.Domain Controller
C.Authenticated Session
D.IPSec (Offline Request)
E.Smart Card User
Answer: ACE

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NO.4 What format is used to list the information that is contained in the Issuer field of an X.509 digital
certificate?
A.FQDN
B.X.500 CN
C.CA Name
D.X.500 DN
E.Position of the CA in the CA hierarchy
Answer: D

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NO.5 When an OCSP responder provides a digitally signed response for each of the certificates sent to it by
the relying party in the original request, its reply consists of the certificate identifier, one of three status
values and a validity interval. What are the three status values?
A.Okay, Not Okay, Revoked
B.This Update, Next Update, Future Update
C.Good, Revoked, Unknown
D.Issuer
Public Key, Hash of the Private Key, Unknown
E.Issuer
Private Key, Thumbprint of the Public Key, Unknown
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are the two primary types of token system?
A.Time-based
B.Passive
C.Challenge/Response
D.Active
E.Seeded
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Which of the following are hash algorithms?
A.MD5
B.SHA
C.RSA
D.3DES
E.AES
Answer: AB

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NO.8 When Windows places a file on a FAT 16 partition, what does it look for, in HEX, to know that a file can
be placed in that cluster?
A.0000
B.FFFF
C.0001
D.000F
E.1111
Answer: A

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NO.9 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A.Mesh
B.Broadcast
C.Infrastructure
D.Hierarchical
E.Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.10 What is the average size of a biometric template?
A.Between 10 and 100 KB
B.Between 100 and 500 KB
C.Less than 1 KB
D.Less than 3 bytes
E.Between 500 KB and 1 MB
Answer: C

SCP   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.11 What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.12 If you wish to make your Windows user account use smart cards, where must you go to check this
option?
A.Active Directory Users and Computers
B.Computer Management, Local Users and Groups
C.Active Directory Sites and Services
D.Active Directory Security Services
E.On the Enterprise Certificate Server
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following is not a category of Intellectual Property?
A.Patents
B.Trademarks
C.Copyrights
D.Manufacturing Standards
E.Trade Secrets
Answer: D

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NO.14 Based on the provided image, what type of certification path will be used in this network?
A.Nested certification path
B.Hierarchical certification path
C.Functional certification path
D.Mesh certification path
E.Bridged certification path
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following can be protected by a patent?
A.A new invention
B.A new product
C.A new process
D.A new name
E.An old product made in a new way
Answer: ABCE

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NO.16 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = E
?K1
[D
?K2
[E
?K1
[P]]] ) , what is the function of D?
A.D is the text before encryption
B.D is the first encryption key
C.D is the second encryption key
D.D is the decryption key
E.D is the text after encryption
Answer: D

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NO.17 When a biometric system performs a one-to-one mapping, what is the systems doing?
A.Identification
B.Authentication
C.Classification
D.Detection
E.Recognition
Answer: B

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NO.18 Incidents are generally categorized as falling into attacks on the CIA triad. Which of the following three
attacks are the general categories?
A.Attacks against Integrity
B.Attacks against Confidentiality
C.Attacks against Availability
D.Attacks against Accuracy
E.Attacks against Collisions
Answer: ABC

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NO.19 Which antenna type is best for extending the local range of an Access Point?
A.Yagi
B.Omni-directional
C.Di-polar
D.Parabolic
E.Mono-polar
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are in the process of designing your PKI. You are working on the individual systems and servers
that you will need. Which machine that you install is designed simply to enroll new users into the PKI?
A.Certification Authority
B.Archive Server
C.Security Server
D.Registration Authority
E.Certification Repository
Answer: D

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NO.21 What is the name of the option in Windows to hide, or append, a second file to a main file?
A.The Hidden Bit
B.Dynamic Link Libraries
C.NTFS Streams
D.File Associations
E.Hidden Server Management
Answer: C

SCP   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.22 Which of the following numbers are Non-Prime Numbers?
A.23
B.2
C.24
D.39
E.17
Answer: CD

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NO.23 What type of information can be learned from a user
COOKIES/index.dat file?
A.Their MAC address
B.Their IP address
C.Their email address
D.The websites they have visited
E.The user logon name
Answer: DE

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NO.24 In PGP, there are two conditions that can be present to provide for the validity of a certificate. What
are these two conditions?
A.The certificate has been digitally signed by your local trusted root Certificate Authority.
B.The certificate is digitally signed by at least one completely trusted key holder, who has a valid
certificate.
C.The certificate is digitally signed by at least two of the marginally trusted key holders, who have valid
certificates.
D.The certificate has been digitally signed by the sender
trusted root Certificate Authority.
E.The certificate is digitally signed by the sender, who is authenticated by your local Certificate Authority.
Answer: BC

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NO.25 If a Certificate Authority is also designed to accept requests for certificates, then it can be termed as
what?
A.A Root CA
B.An Intermediate CA
C.A CA Hierarchy
D.A Registration Authority
E.A Repository
Answer: D

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NO.26 What is a unique benefit to using a File Viewer as one of your Forensics Tools?
A.You do not have to copy data files to your forensic machine for analysis
B.You do not have to worry about modifying the evidence in any manner
C.You are able to view the evidence files in HEX format
D.You do not need to have all the programs installed on your forensic machine to view evidence files
E.You are able to search for specific file types to which the O/S does not have application associations
Answer: D

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NO.27 If your goal is to make your CA issue certificates that have specific key usage, what can you use to
achieve this goal?
A.This can be done by using unique DNs for each key use that you want.
B.This can be done by using OIDs for each key use that you want.
C.This can be done by using unique CNs for each key use that you want.
D.This can only be done by selecting the key use options during the setup of the CA.
E.This can be done by installing the identifier file for each key use.
Answer: B

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NO.28 One of the many extensions in an X.509 digital certificate is called the SubjectKeyIdentifier. What is
this extension used for?
A.The extension is used to verify the SubjectPrivateKeyInfo
B.The extension is used to match the hashes of the SubjectKeyAlgorithm
C.The extension is used only when the certificate is used for code signing from a defined Subject
D.The extension is used when matching the hash value of the public key on the certificate
E.The extension is used only if the certificate is sent from a Root CA
Answer: D

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NO.29 When you install and use PGP on your local computer, where is the key pair stored, by default?
A.secret.ring
B.public.ring
C./usr/bin/pgp
D.pubring.pkr
E.secring.pkr
Answer: DE

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NO.30 What transmission system uses multiple frequencies combined together as a band?
A.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
B.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
C.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
Answer: E

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Guide de formation plus récente de SCP SC0-451

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Code d'Examen: SC0-451
Nom d'Examen: SCP (Tactical Perimeter Defense)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 The CEO of your company has just issued a statement that the network must be more secure right
away. You have discussed several options with the Chief Security Officer and the Chief Technology Officer.
The results of your discussion are to implement IPSec. What are the two prime functions of IPSec that
you can let the CEO know will be addressed with the implementation?
A. Ensure data corruptibility
B. Ensure data integrity
C. Ensure data availability
D. Ensure data security
E. Ensure data deliverability
Answer: BD

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NO.2 For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of
the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside
the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your network traffic has increased substantially over the last year, and you are looking into your
caching options for frequently visited websites. What are the two types of caching that ISA Server 2006
supports?
A. Reverse caching
B. Forward caching
C. Inverse caching
D. Recursive caching
E. Real-time caching
Answer: AB

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NO.5 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are considering your options for a new firewall deployment. At which three layers of the OSI
model does a stateful packet filtering firewall operate?
A. Presentation
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Application
E. Transport
Answer: BCE

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NO.7 As per the specifications of RFC 1191: Path MTU Discovery, MTUs have been defined so that
transmitted datagrams will not unnecessarily become fragmented when traveling across different types of
physical media. You are going to run several packet captures to be sure there are no out of spec packets
on your network.
According to these specifications what are the absolute minimum and maximum MTUs?
A. 1492 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
B. 68 Bytes and 65535 Bytes respectively
C. 512 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
D. 512 bits and 1500 bits respectively
E. 512 bits per second and 1500 bits per second respectively
Answer: B

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NO.8 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.9 When performing wireless network traffic analysis, what is the type and subtype for an 802.11
authentication packet?
A. Type AA Subtype AAAA
B. Type 00 Subtype 1011
C. Type 0A Subtype 0A0A
D. Type 11 Subtype 0000
E. Type A0 Subtype A1A0
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are planning on implementing a token-based authentication system in your network. The network
currently is spread out over four floors of your building. There are plans to add three branch offices.
During your research you are analyzing the different types of systems. Which of the following are the two
common systems token-based authentication uses?
A. Challenge/Response
B. Random-code
C. Time-based
D. Challenge/Handshake
E. Password-Synch
Answer: AC

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NO.12 At a policy meeting you have been given the task of creating the firewall policy. What are the two basic
positions you can take when creating the policy?
A. To deny all traffic and permit only that which is required.
B. To permit only IP traffic and filter TCP traffic
C. To permit only TCP traffic and filter IP traffic
D. To permit all traffic and deny that which is required.
E. To include your internal IP address as blocked from incoming to prevent spoofing.
Answer: AD

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NO.13 You have been given the task of building the new wireless networks for your office, and you need to
verify that your equipment will not interfere with other wireless equipment frequencies. What wireless
standard allows for up to 11 Mbps transmission rates and operates in the 2.4GHz range?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11e
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11i
E. 802.11g
Answer: A

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NO.14 During a training presentation, that you are delivering, you are asked how wireless networks function,
compared to the OSI Model. What two layers of the OSI Model are addressed by the 802.11 standards?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Session
Answer: AB

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NO.15 You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there
are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware
failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E

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NO.16 You are configuring a Cisco Router, and are creating Access Control Lists as part of the security of the
network. When creating Wildcard Masks, which of the following rules apply?
A. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
B. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
C. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
D. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
E. To create a Wildcard Mask, always take the inverse of the Subnet Mask.
Answer: AD

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NO.17 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

SCP   SC0-451   SC0-451   SC0-451   SC0-451

NO.18 You are monitoring the network traffic on your Frame-Relay Internet connection. You notice a large
amount of unauthorized traffic on port 21. You examine the packets, and notice there are no files being
transferred. Traffic on what other port must be examined to view any file contents?
A. 20
B. 119
C. 23
D. 80
E. 2021
Answer: A

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NO.19 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are
examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined
together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

SCP   SC0-451   SC0-451   SC0-451 examen

NO.20 As you increase the layers of security in your organization, you must watch the network behavior
closely. How can a firewall have a negative impact on the performance of your network?
A. It can authorize sensitive information from the wrong host
B. It can block needed traffic
C. It can decrypt secure communications that were supposed to get past the firewall encrypted
D. It can restrict bandwidth based on QoS
E. It can filter packets that contain virus signatures
Answer: B

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NO.21 You have configured Snort to run on your SuSe Linux machine, and you are currently making the
configuration changes to your MySQL database. What is the result of running the following command at
the mysql prompt?
source /usr/share/doc/packages/snort/schemas/create_mysql;
A. This command tells MySQL to connect to the /usr directory when source files are required for Snort
rules.
B. This command tells MySQL that the source files for Snort are located in the /usr directory.
C. This command tells MySQL where to place the Snort capture files in the database.
D. This command tells MySQL to populate the database using the fields provided by Snort.
E. This command tells MySQL where to find the source data for connecting to Snort.
Answer: D

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NO.22 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows
Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.23 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

SCP   certification SC0-451   SC0-451   SC0-451 examen

NO.24 The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that
establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500
series running IOS 11.2.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7
will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
<Missing>
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D's Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes
7 and Router D's Int E0.
Answer: D

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NO.25 You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current
configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any
network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C

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NO.26 During your review of the logs of your Cisco router, you see the following line. What is the meaning of
this line?
%SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty1 (172.16.10.1)
A. A normal, but noteworthy event
B. An informative message
C. A warning condition has occurred
D. A debugging message
E. An error condition has occurred
Answer: A

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NO.27 In the image, there are two nodes communicating directly, without an access point. In the packet on
the right side of the image, the Address 1 field is blank. If this packet is going to the other computer, what
is the value that must be filled in this blank address field?
<Missing>
A. 2345
B. 1234
C. ABCD
D. <null>
E. ABCD-1234
Answer: B

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NO.28 You are configuring a new IDS, running Snort, in your network. To better configure Snort, you are
studying the configuration file. Which four of the following are the primary parts of the Snort configuration
file?
A. Postprocessors
B. Variables
C. Preprocessors
D. Output Plug-ins
E. Rulesets
Answer: BCDE

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NO.29 If you wish to create a new rule in ISA Server 2006 so that all file attachments with an .exe extension
that come through the firewall are dropped, what would you select in the Toolbox to create this rule?
A. Content Type
B. User Group
C. Destination Set
D. Protocol Set
E. Extension Type
Answer: A

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NO.30 You are configuring your new IDS machine, where you have recently installed Snort. While you are
working with this machine, you wish to create some basic rules to test the ability to log traffic as you desire.
Which of the following Snort rules will log any tcp traffic from any host other than 172.16.40.50 using any
port, to any host in the 10.0.10.0/24 network using any port?
A. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
B. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
C. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
D. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
E. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <- 10.0.10.0/24 any
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: SC0-402
Nom d'Examen: SCP (Network Defense and Countermeasures (NDC))
Questions et réponses: 275 Q&As

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NO.1 You have been hired at a large company to manage the network security issues. Prior to your
arrival, there was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a
meeting and are discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your
assistants asks what the function of Authentication in network security is. Which of the following
best describes Authentication?
A. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected for privacy and Authentication.
Authentication ensures the privacy of
data on the network system.
B. Authentication is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Upon receiving the email or data communication, authentication must be verified to ensure that the
message has not been altered,
modified, or added to or subtracted from in transit by unauthorized users.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes authentication for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Authentication verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
Answer: E

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NO.2 During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of feasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of protect the asset
C. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset.
D. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset.
Answer: E

SCP   SC0-402   certification SC0-402   SC0-402 examen

NO.3 Your company has decided to allow certain people to work from home. The work that they do does
not require that they be in the office for anything more than meetings and they already have
personal high-speed DSL connections at their homes. You have been given the task of figuring out
how to get your coworkers to connect to your company's network securely and reliably. What
technology can you use to solve your problem most effectively?
A. Dedicated Leased Lines (ISDN or T1)
B. Dial-Up via PSTN lines.
C. VPN
D. Firewall
E. IDS
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are the firewall administrator for your company and you have just learned that the
Server administrators are gearing up support an L2TP based VPN solution. You are told
to be sure that your firewall rule sets will not hinder the performance of the VPN. Which
of the following ports will you have to allow through the firewall?
A. TCP 1701
B. UDP 1701
C. TCP 443
D. UDP 443
E. TCP1601
Answer: B

SCP   SC0-402   SC0-402   SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.5 You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have
decided to implement a VPN solution that will use L2TP. Which port or ports would you
need to allow through the firewall to allow the L2TP traffic to reach the VPN server
inside your network from a remote client?
A. TCP 1723
B. UDP 47
C. UDP 1701
D. TCP 443
E. UDP 500
Answer: C

SCP   SC0-402   SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.6 Which of the following best describes the Repair Model?
A. The model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as updates such as Service
Packs, maintenance updates,
and patches. Preventive measures can also improve the chances of the repair model working better than
if
the system had no
preventive measures ever taken.
B. The repair model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs of replacing
the critical assets within
your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high premiums anyway,
down time while the
insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are today.
C. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Repair costs can be very
high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues
to deal with as well. In
any case, this model should be the last resort because of cost and may be the most time consuming.
D. The repair model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing personnel.
Knowing that assets have very
specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience
of the personnel.
E. Before incurring the cost for repair of an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that
may
include the cost of repair
or the actual repair itself. Nevertheless, the repair model should focus on the restoration of the downed
asset to its working status
within the network infrastructure. Keep in mind that after hardware costs, costs for the reloading or
replacement of software can
be a large cost factor as well.
Answer: E

SCP   SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.7 The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Operational Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Operational audit?
A. This type of audit is typically done by a contracted external team of security experts who check for
policy compliance.
B. This type of audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going
activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
C. This type of audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to
international standards.
D. This type of audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security
measures are up to international
standards.
E. This type of audit is usually conducted by external resources and may be a review or audit of detailed
audit logs.
Answer: B

certification SCP   SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.8 You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have decided to
implement a PPTP VPN solution, which of these ports would you need to allow through the firewall
to allow these VPN sessions into your network?
A. 1723
B. 2317
C. 1273
D. 1372
E. 7132
Answer: A

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NO.9 What technology is being employed to resist SYN floods by having each side of the connection
attempt create its own sequence number (This sequence number contains a synopsis of the
connection so that if/when the connection attempt is finalized the fist part of the attempt can be
re-created from the sequence number)?
A. SYN cookie
B. SYN floodgate
C. SYN gate
D. SYN damn
E. SYN flood break
Answer: A

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NO.10 It has come to your attention that some host on the web has tried to do some reconnaissance on your
network and send a VRFY command to try and steal user names. What type of attack was used
against your network?
A. SMTP attack
B. Web browser attack
C. IMAP attack
D. IP Spoofing
E. Account scan
Answer: A

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NO.11 You have been hired at a large company to manage network security. Prior to your arrival, there
was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a meeting and are
discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your assistants asks what the
function of Confidentiality in network security is. Which of the following best describes
Confidentiality?
A. Confidentiality verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
B. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected in order to maintain appropriate levels of
privacy and confidentiality.
Network security must provide a secure channel for the transmission of data and email that does not allow
eavesdropping by
unauthorized users. Data confidentiality ensures the privacy of data on the network system.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes Confidentiality for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Confidentiality is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Data must be kept from unauthorized modification, forgery, or any other form of corruption either from
malicious threats or
corruption that is accidental in nature.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following best describes the Insurance Model?
A. Before incurring the cost for insuring an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that may
include the cost of
insurance itself.
B. The insurance model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs of
replacing the critical assets within
your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high premiums anyway,
down time while the
insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are today.
C. The insurance model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as updates such
as
Service Packs, maintenance
updates, and patches. Preventive measures can also improve the chances of the insurance model
working
better than if the system
had no preventive measures ever taken.
D. The insurance model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing personnel.
Knowing that assets have very
specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience
of the personnel.
E. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Insurance costs can be
very high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues to deal with as well.
Answer: B

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NO.13 The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Independent Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Independent Audit?
A. An independent audit is usually conducted by external or outside resources and may be a review or
audit of detailed audit logs.
B. The independent audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security
measures are up to
international standards.
C. The independent audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up
to
international standards.
D. The independent audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going
activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
E. The independent audit is typically done by a contracted outside team of security experts who check for
policy compliance.
Answer: A

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NO.14 You were recently hired as the security administrator of a small business. You are
reviewing the current state of security in the network and find that the current logging
system must be immediately modified. As the system is currently configured, auditing
has no practical value. Which of the following are the reasons that the current auditing
has little value?
A. The logs go unchecked.
B. The logs are automatically deleted after three months.
C. The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 500Kb.
D. The only auditing is successful file access events.
E. The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 5000Kb.
Answer: AD

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NO.15 Which of the following best describes the Total Replacement Model?
A. The total replacement model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing
personnel. Knowing that assets
have very specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience of the
personnel.
B. Before incurring the cost for replacing of an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that
may include the cost of
repair or the actual repair itself. Nevertheless, the total replacement model should focus on the repairing
of
the downed asset to its
working status within the network infrastructure. Keep in mind that after hardware costs, costs for the
reloading or replacement of
software can be a large cost factor as well.
C. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Replacement costs can be
very high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues to deal with as well.
In any case, this model should be the last resort because of cost and may be the most time consuming.
D. The total replacement model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs
of
replacing the critical
assets within your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high
premiums
anyway, down time
while the insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are
today.
E. The total replacement model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as
updates
such as Service Packs,
maintenance updates, and patches, before deciding to replace the asset. Preventive measures can also
improve the chances of the
replacement model working better than if the system had no preventive measures ever taken.
Answer: C

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NO.16 During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of an infeasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
C. the cost to protect the asset is infeasible to determine
D. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
Answer: A

certification SCP   certification SC0-402   SC0-402   SC0-402 examen

NO.17 You are considering adding layers to your existing authentication system. Reading through some of
the vendor literature on logon solutions, it frequently mentions two and three factor authentication.
Your assistant asks you to describe the difference between the two. Select the options that correctly
describe two-factor and three-factor authentication:
A. Two-factor authentication is the process providing something you have along with something you
know.
B. Two-factor authentication is the process of providing two forms of authentication, such as a username
and a password.
C. Two-factor authentication is the process of authenticating twice during the login sequence to verify user
identity.
D. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing something you have along with something you
know and something you are.
E. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing three forms of authentication, such as
username,
password, and sitting at
the physical machine to login.
F. Three-factor authentication is the process of authenticating three times during the login sequence to
verify user identity.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 Signatures are generally divided into what three categories?
A. Corruptions
B. Exploits
C. Accesses
D. DoS attacks
E. Reconnaissance
Answer: BDE

SCP examen   SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.19 Your company has decided to allow certain people to work from home. The work that
they do, does not require that they be in the office for anything more than meetings. In
addition, they already have high-speed DSL connections at their homes for personal use.
You have been given the task of figuring out how to get your coworkers to connect to
your company's network securely and reliably. What technology can you use to solve
your problem most effectively?
A. Dedicated Leased Lines (ISDN or T1)
B. Dial-Up via PSTN lines.
C. VPN
D. IPChains
E. IDS
Answer: C

SCP   SC0-402   certification SC0-402   SC0-402 examen   SC0-402

NO.20 You have been hired at a large company to manage network. Prior to your arrival, there
was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a
meeting and are discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of
your assistants asks what the function of Integrity in network security is. Which of the
following best describes Integrity?
A. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
B. Integrity verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, the integrity of the sender
is necessary to verify that
the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is going
to
the right destination.
C. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected for privacy and Integrity. Integrity ensures
the privacy of data on the
network system.
D. Integrity is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information stored
within network systems. Data
must be kept from unauthorized modification, forgery, or any other form of corruption either from
malicious threats or corruption
that is accidental in nature. Upon receiving the email or data communication, integrity must be verified to
ensure that the message
has not been altered, modified, or added to or subtracted from in transit by unauthorized users.
E. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes integrity for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the transaction.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: SC0-451
Nom d'Examen: SCP (Tactical Perimeter Defense)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.2 As per the specifications of RFC 1191: Path MTU Discovery, MTUs have been defined so that
transmitted datagrams will not unnecessarily become fragmented when traveling across different types of
physical media. You are going to run several packet captures to be sure there are no out of spec packets
on your network.
According to these specifications what are the absolute minimum and maximum MTUs?
A. 1492 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
B. 68 Bytes and 65535 Bytes respectively
C. 512 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
D. 512 bits and 1500 bits respectively
E. 512 bits per second and 1500 bits per second respectively
Answer: B

SCP   certification SC0-451   SC0-451

NO.3 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

SCP   SC0-451   certification SC0-451   SC0-451

NO.4 You are configuring a new IDS, running Snort, in your network. To better configure Snort, you are
studying the configuration file. Which four of the following are the primary parts of the Snort configuration
file?
A. Postprocessors
B. Variables
C. Preprocessors
D. Output Plug-ins
E. Rulesets
Answer: BCDE

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NO.5 You are configuring a Cisco Router, and are creating Access Control Lists as part of the security of the
network. When creating Wildcard Masks, which of the following rules apply?
A. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
B. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
C. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
D. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
E. To create a Wildcard Mask, always take the inverse of the Subnet Mask.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 You have configured Snort to run on your SuSe Linux machine, and you are currently making the
configuration changes to your MySQL database. What is the result of running the following command at
the mysql prompt?
source /usr/share/doc/packages/snort/schemas/create_mysql;
A. This command tells MySQL to connect to the /usr directory when source files are required for Snort
rules.
B. This command tells MySQL that the source files for Snort are located in the /usr directory.
C. This command tells MySQL where to place the Snort capture files in the database.
D. This command tells MySQL to populate the database using the fields provided by Snort.
E. This command tells MySQL where to find the source data for connecting to Snort.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are monitoring the network traffic on your Frame-Relay Internet connection. You notice a large
amount of unauthorized traffic on port 21. You examine the packets, and notice there are no files being
transferred. Traffic on what other port must be examined to view any file contents?
A. 20
B. 119
C. 23
D. 80
E. 2021
Answer: A

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NO.8 In the image, there are two nodes communicating directly, without an access point. In the packet on
the right side of the image, the Address 1 field is blank. If this packet is going to the other computer, what
is the value that must be filled in this blank address field?
<Missing>
A. 2345
B. 1234
C. ABCD
D. <null>
E. ABCD-1234
Answer: B

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NO.9 During your review of the logs of your Cisco router, you see the following line. What is the meaning of
this line?
%SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty1 (172.16.10.1)
A. A normal, but noteworthy event
B. An informative message
C. A warning condition has occurred
D. A debugging message
E. An error condition has occurred
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are configuring your new IDS machine, where you have recently installed Snort. While you are
working with this machine, you wish to create some basic rules to test the ability to log traffic as you desire.
Which of the following Snort rules will log any tcp traffic from any host other than 172.16.40.50 using any
port, to any host in the 10.0.10.0/24 network using any port?
A. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
B. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
C. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
D. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
E. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <- 10.0.10.0/24 any
Answer: B

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NO.11 Your network traffic has increased substantially over the last year, and you are looking into your
caching options for frequently visited websites. What are the two types of caching that ISA Server 2006
supports?
A. Reverse caching
B. Forward caching
C. Inverse caching
D. Recursive caching
E. Real-time caching
Answer: AB

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NO.12 For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of
the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside
the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B

SCP   SC0-451   SC0-451   SC0-451   SC0-451

NO.13 The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that
establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500
series running IOS 11.2.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7
will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
<Missing>
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D's Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes
7 and Router D's Int E0.
Answer: D

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NO.14 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.15 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.16 The CEO of your company has just issued a statement that the network must be more secure right
away. You have discussed several options with the Chief Security Officer and the Chief Technology Officer.
The results of your discussion are to implement IPSec. What are the two prime functions of IPSec that
you can let the CEO know will be addressed with the implementation?
A. Ensure data corruptibility
B. Ensure data integrity
C. Ensure data availability
D. Ensure data security
E. Ensure data deliverability
Answer: BD

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NO.17 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.18 During a training presentation, that you are delivering, you are asked how wireless networks function,
compared to the OSI Model. What two layers of the OSI Model are addressed by the 802.11 standards?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Session
Answer: AB

SCP examen   SC0-451   SC0-451

NO.19 As you increase the layers of security in your organization, you must watch the network behavior
closely. How can a firewall have a negative impact on the performance of your network?
A. It can authorize sensitive information from the wrong host
B. It can block needed traffic
C. It can decrypt secure communications that were supposed to get past the firewall encrypted
D. It can restrict bandwidth based on QoS
E. It can filter packets that contain virus signatures
Answer: B

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NO.20 You have been given the task of building the new wireless networks for your office, and you need to
verify that your equipment will not interfere with other wireless equipment frequencies. What wireless
standard allows for up to 11 Mbps transmission rates and operates in the 2.4GHz range?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11e
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11i
E. 802.11g
Answer: A

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NO.21 When performing wireless network traffic analysis, what is the type and subtype for an 802.11
authentication packet?
A. Type AA Subtype AAAA
B. Type 00 Subtype 1011
C. Type 0A Subtype 0A0A
D. Type 11 Subtype 0000
E. Type A0 Subtype A1A0
Answer: B

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NO.22 You are planning on implementing a token-based authentication system in your network. The network
currently is spread out over four floors of your building. There are plans to add three branch offices.
During your research you are analyzing the different types of systems. Which of the following are the two
common systems token-based authentication uses?
A. Challenge/Response
B. Random-code
C. Time-based
D. Challenge/Handshake
E. Password-Synch
Answer: AC

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NO.23 At a policy meeting you have been given the task of creating the firewall policy. What are the two basic
positions you can take when creating the policy?
A. To deny all traffic and permit only that which is required.
B. To permit only IP traffic and filter TCP traffic
C. To permit only TCP traffic and filter IP traffic
D. To permit all traffic and deny that which is required.
E. To include your internal IP address as blocked from incoming to prevent spoofing.
Answer: AD

SCP examen   SC0-451   SC0-451

NO.24 You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there
are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware
failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E

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NO.25 If you wish to create a new rule in ISA Server 2006 so that all file attachments with an .exe extension
that come through the firewall are dropped, what would you select in the Toolbox to create this rule?
A. Content Type
B. User Group
C. Destination Set
D. Protocol Set
E. Extension Type
Answer: A

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NO.26 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows
Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.27 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.28 You are considering your options for a new firewall deployment. At which three layers of the OSI
model does a stateful packet filtering firewall operate?
A. Presentation
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Application
E. Transport
Answer: BCE

SCP examen   certification SC0-451   certification SC0-451

NO.29 You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current
configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any
network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C

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NO.30 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are
examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined
together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: SC0-501

Nom d'Examen: SCP (Enterprise Security Implementation (ESI) )

Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

SCP   certification SC0-501   certification SC0-501

NO.2 Incidents are generally categorized as falling into attacks on the CIA triad. Which of the following three
attacks are the general categories?
A.Attacks against Integrity
B.Attacks against Confidentiality
C.Attacks against Availability
D.Attacks against Accuracy
E.Attacks against Collisions
Answer: ABC

SCP   certification SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.3 In PGP, there are two conditions that can be present to provide for the validity of a certificate. What
are these two conditions?
A.The certificate has been digitally signed by your local trusted root Certificate Authority.
B.The certificate is digitally signed by at least one completely trusted key holder, who has a valid
certificate.
C.The certificate is digitally signed by at least two of the marginally trusted key holders, who have valid
certificates.
D.The certificate has been digitally signed by the sender
trusted root Certificate Authority.
E.The certificate is digitally signed by the sender, who is authenticated by your local Certificate Authority.
Answer: BC

certification SCP   certification SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.4 If a Certificate Authority is also designed to accept requests for certificates, then it can be termed as
what?
A.A Root CA
B.An Intermediate CA
C.A CA Hierarchy
D.A Registration Authority
E.A Repository
Answer: D

SCP   SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.5 What are the two primary types of token system?
A.Time-based
B.Passive
C.Challenge/Response
D.Active
E.Seeded
Answer: AC

SCP   SC0-501   certification SC0-501

NO.6 If your goal is to make your CA issue certificates that have specific key usage, what can you use to
achieve this goal?
A.This can be done by using unique DNs for each key use that you want.
B.This can be done by using OIDs for each key use that you want.
C.This can be done by using unique CNs for each key use that you want.
D.This can only be done by selecting the key use options during the setup of the CA.
E.This can be done by installing the identifier file for each key use.
Answer: B

SCP   certification SC0-501   SC0-501   certification SC0-501

NO.7 Which of the following can be protected by a patent?
A.A new invention
B.A new product
C.A new process
D.A new name
E.An old product made in a new way
Answer: ABCE

SCP   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.8 If you are going to build a PKI you will need many different components. What is an industry standard
that you can build your PKI upon?
A.Contiguous distinguished name spaces
B.X.509v3 Certificates
C.A defined hierarchy of authorities
D.128-bit SHA1
E.128-bit MD5
Answer: B

SCP   SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.9 When Windows places a file on a FAT 16 partition, what does it look for, in HEX, to know that a file can
be placed in that cluster?
A.0000
B.FFFF
C.0001
D.000F
E.1111
Answer: A

SCP   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.10 If you receive an X.509 digital certificate that has a unique identifier, but has no extensions, what
version is the certificate?
A.It is a Version 2 certificate
B.It is a Version 3 certificate
C.It is a Version 1 certificate
D.All X.509 digital certificates have unique identifiers
E.The unique identifier is determined by implementation, not version number
Answer: A

SCP   SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501 examen

NO.11 What format is used to list the information that is contained in the Issuer field of an X.509 digital
certificate?
A.FQDN
B.X.500 CN
C.CA Name
D.X.500 DN
E.Position of the CA in the CA hierarchy
Answer: D

SCP   SC0-501   certification SC0-501

NO.12 Which antenna type is best for extending the local range of an Access Point?
A.Yagi
B.Omni-directional
C.Di-polar
D.Parabolic
E.Mono-polar
Answer: B

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NO.13 If you wish to make your Windows user account use smart cards, where must you go to check this
option?
A.Active Directory Users and Computers
B.Computer Management, Local Users and Groups
C.Active Directory Sites and Services
D.Active Directory Security Services
E.On the Enterprise Certificate Server
Answer: A

certification SCP   SC0-501 examen   SC0-501   certification SC0-501

NO.14 What type of information can be learned from a user
COOKIES/index.dat file?
A.Their MAC address
B.Their IP address
C.Their email address
D.The websites they have visited
E.The user logon name
Answer: DE

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NO.15 When you install and use PGP on your local computer, where is the key pair stored, by default?
A.secret.ring
B.public.ring
C./usr/bin/pgp
D.pubring.pkr
E.secring.pkr
Answer: DE

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NO.16 Which of the following numbers are Non-Prime Numbers?
A.23
B.2
C.24
D.39
E.17
Answer: CD

SCP examen   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.17 Which of the following are hash algorithms?
A.MD5
B.SHA
C.RSA
D.3DES
E.AES
Answer: AB

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NO.18 What is the name of the option in Windows to hide, or append, a second file to a main file?
A.The Hidden Bit
B.Dynamic Link Libraries
C.NTFS Streams
D.File Associations
E.Hidden Server Management
Answer: C

SCP examen   SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.19 There are many certificate templates built into Windows 2000 Certificate Servers. Which of the
following user templates are valid for client authentication?
A.Smart Card Logon
B.Domain Controller
C.Authenticated Session
D.IPSec (Offline Request)
E.Smart Card User
Answer: ACE

SCP   certification SC0-501   SC0-501   certification SC0-501

NO.20 Which of the following is not a category of Intellectual Property?
A.Patents
B.Trademarks
C.Copyrights
D.Manufacturing Standards
E.Trade Secrets
Answer: D

SCP   SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.21 One of the many extensions in an X.509 digital certificate is called the SubjectKeyIdentifier. What is
this extension used for?
A.The extension is used to verify the SubjectPrivateKeyInfo
B.The extension is used to match the hashes of the SubjectKeyAlgorithm
C.The extension is used only when the certificate is used for code signing from a defined Subject
D.The extension is used when matching the hash value of the public key on the certificate
E.The extension is used only if the certificate is sent from a Root CA
Answer: D

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NO.22 When an OCSP responder provides a digitally signed response for each of the certificates sent to it by
the relying party in the original request, its reply consists of the certificate identifier, one of three status
values and a validity interval. What are the three status values?
A.Okay, Not Okay, Revoked
B.This Update, Next Update, Future Update
C.Good, Revoked, Unknown
D.Issuer
Public Key, Hash of the Private Key, Unknown
E.Issuer
Private Key, Thumbprint of the Public Key, Unknown
Answer: C

certification SCP   SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501 examen

NO.23 You are in the process of designing your PKI. You are working on the individual systems and servers
that you will need. Which machine that you install is designed simply to enroll new users into the PKI?
A.Certification Authority
B.Archive Server
C.Security Server
D.Registration Authority
E.Certification Repository
Answer: D

SCP   SC0-501   SC0-501   certification SC0-501

NO.24 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = E
?K1
[D
?K2
[E
?K1
[P]]] ) , what is the function of D?
A.D is the text before encryption
B.D is the first encryption key
C.D is the second encryption key
D.D is the decryption key
E.D is the text after encryption
Answer: D

SCP   SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.25 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A.Mesh
B.Broadcast
C.Infrastructure
D.Hierarchical
E.Ad Hoc
Answer: E

SCP   SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.26 When a biometric system performs a one-to-one mapping, what is the systems doing?
A.Identification
B.Authentication
C.Classification
D.Detection
E.Recognition
Answer: B

SCP examen   certification SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.27 What is the average size of a biometric template?
A.Between 10 and 100 KB
B.Between 100 and 500 KB
C.Less than 1 KB
D.Less than 3 bytes
E.Between 500 KB and 1 MB
Answer: C

certification SCP   SC0-501 examen   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.28 What transmission system uses multiple frequencies combined together as a band?
A.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
B.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
C.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
Answer: E

SCP examen   SC0-501 examen   SC0-501   SC0-501   SC0-501 examen

NO.29 What is a unique benefit to using a File Viewer as one of your Forensics Tools?
A.You do not have to copy data files to your forensic machine for analysis
B.You do not have to worry about modifying the evidence in any manner
C.You are able to view the evidence files in HEX format
D.You do not need to have all the programs installed on your forensic machine to view evidence files
E.You are able to search for specific file types to which the O/S does not have application associations
Answer: D

certification SCP   SC0-501   SC0-501

NO.30 Based on the provided image, what type of certification path will be used in this network?
A.Nested certification path
B.Hierarchical certification path
C.Functional certification path
D.Mesh certification path
E.Bridged certification path
Answer: D

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