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2014年4月2日星期三

Les meilleures ISACA CISA examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CISA
Nom d'Examen: ISACA (Isaca CISA )
Questions et réponses: 1180 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a telecommunication device that translates data from digital form to analog
form and back to digital?
A. Multiplexer
B. Modem
C. Protocol converter
D. Concentrator
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A modem is a device that translates data from digital to analog and back to digital.

NO.2 Which of the following data validation edits is effective in detecting transposition and transcription
errors?
A. Range check
B. Check digit
C. Validity check
D. Duplicate check
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A check digit is a numeric value that is calculated mathematically and is appended to data to
ensure that the original data have not been altered or an incorrect, but valid, value substituted.
This control is effective in detecting transposition and transcription errors.
Incorrect answers:
A. A range check is checking data that matches a predetermined range of values.
C. A validity check is programmed checking of the data validity in accordance with predetermined criteria.
D. In a duplicate check, new or fresh transactions are matched to those previously entered to ensure that
they are not already in the system.

NO.3 Which of the following would be the BEST method for ensuring that critical fields in a master record
have been updated properly?
A. Field checks
B. Control totals
C. Reasonableness checks
D. A before-and-after maintenance report
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A before-and-after maintenance report is the best answer because a visual review would provide the most
positive verification that updating was proper.

NO.4 A database administrator is responsible for:
A. defining data ownership.
B. establishing operational standards for the data dictionary.
C. creating the logical and physical database.
D. establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A database administrator is responsible for creating and controlling the logical and physical database.
Defining data ownership resides with the head of the user department or top management if the data is
common to the organization. IS management and the data administrator are responsible for establishing
operational standards for the data dictionary. Establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and
security in line with the corporate security policy is a function of the security administrator.

NO.5 Which of the following BEST describes the necessary documentation for an enterprise product
reengineering (EPR) software installation?
A. Specific developments only
B. Business requirements only
C. All phases of the installation must be documented
D. No need to develop a customer specific documentation
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A global enterprise product reengineering (EPR) software package can be applied to a business to
replace, simplify and improve the quality of IS processing. Documentation is intended to help understand
how, why and which solutions that have been selected and implemented, and therefore must be specific
to the project. Documentation is also intended to support quality assurance and must be comprehensive.

NO.6 A number of system failures are occurring when corrections to previously detected errors are
resubmitted for acceptance testing. This would indicate that the maintenance team is probably not
adequately performing which of the following types of testing?
A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Design walk-throughs
D. Configuration management
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A common system maintenance problem is that errors are often corrected quickly (especially when
deadlines are tight) , units are tested by the programmer, and then transferred to the acceptance test area.
This often results in system problems that should have been detected during integration or system testing.
Integration testing aims at ensuring that the major components of the system interface correctly.

NO.7 Which of the following hardware devices relieves the central computer from performing network
control, format conversion and message handling tasks?
A. Spool
B. Cluster controller
C. Protocol converter
D. Front end processor
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A front-end processor is a hardware device that connects all communication lines to a central computer to
relieve the central computer.

NO.8 Which of the following translates e-mail formats from one network to another so that the message can
travel through all the networks?
A. Gateway
B. Protocol converter
C. Front-end communication processor
D. Concentrator/multiplexor
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A gateway performs the job of translating e-mail formats from one network to another so messages can
make their way through all the networks.
Incorrect answers:
B. A protocol converter is a hardware device that converts between two different types of transmissions,
such as asynchronous and synchronous transmissions.
C. A front-end communication processor connects all network communication lines to a central computer
to relieve the central computer from performing network control, format conversion and message handling
tasks.
D. A concentrator/multiplexor is a device used for combining several lower-speed channels into a
higher-speed channel.

NO.9 An IS auditor reviewing the key roles and responsibilities of the database administrator (DBA) is
LEAST likely to expect the job description of the DBA to include:
A. defining the conceptual schema.
B. defining security and integrity checks.
C. liaising with users in developing data model.
D. mapping data model with the internal schema.
Answer: D Explanation:
A DBA only in rare instances should be mapping data elements from the data model to the internal
schema (physical data storage definitions). To do so would eliminate data independence for application
systems. Mapping of the data model occurs with the conceptual schema since the conceptual schema
represents the enterprisewide view of data within an organization and is the basis for deriving an end-user
department data model.

NO.10 A critical function of a firewall is to act as a:
A. special router that connects the Internet to a LAN.
B. device for preventing authorized users from accessing the LAN.
C. server used to connect authorized users to private trusted network resources.
D. proxy server to increase the speed of access to authorized users.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A firewall is a set of related programs, located at a network gateway server, that protects the resources of
a private network from users of other networks. An enterprise with an intranet that allows its workers
access to the wider Internet installs a firewall to prevent outsiders from accessing its own private data
resources and for controlling the outside resources to which its own users have access. Basically, a
firewall, working closely with a router program, filters all network packets to determine whether or not to
forward them toward their destination. A firewall includes or works with a proxy server that makes network
requests on behalf of workstation users. A firewall is often installed in a specially designated computer
separate from the rest of the network so no incoming request can get directed to private network
resources.

NO.11 A call-back system requires that a user with an id and password call a remote server through a dial-up
line, then the server disconnects and: A. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and
password using a telephone number from its database.
B. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number provided
by the user during this connection.
C. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using its database.
D. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using the sender's database.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A call-back system in a net centric environment would mean that a user with an id and password calls a
remote server through a dial-up line first, and then the server disconnects and dials back to the user
machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number from its database. Although the
server can depend upon its own database, it cannot know the authenticity of the dialer when the user dials
again. The server cannot depend upon the sender's database to dial back as the same could be
manipulated.

NO.12 Which of the following is a benefit of using callback devices?
A. Provide an audit trail
B. Can be used in a switchboard environment
C. Permit unlimited user mobility
D. Allow call forwarding
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A callback feature hooks into the access control software and logs all authorized and unauthorized access
attempts, permitting the follow-up and further review of potential breaches. Call forwarding (choice D) is a
means of potentially bypassing callback control. By dialing through an authorized phone number from an
unauthorized phone number, a perpetrator can gain computer access. This vulnerability can be controlled
through callback systems that are available.

NO.13 A hub is a device that connects:
A. two LANs using different protocols.
B. a LAN with a WAN.
C. a LAN with a metropolitan area network (MAN).
D. two segments of a single LAN.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A hub is a device that connects two segments of a single LAN. A hub is a repeater. It provides transparent
connectivity to users on all segments of the same LAN. It is a level 1 device. Incorrect answers:
A. A bridge operates at level 2 of the OSI layer and is used to connect two LANs using different protocols
(e.g., joining an ethernet and token network) to form a logical network.
B. A gateway, which is a level 7 device, is used to connect a LAN to a WAN.
C. A LAN is connected with a MAN using a router, which operates in the network layer.

NO.14 A LAN administrator normally would be restricted from:
A. having end-user responsibilities.
B. reporting to the end-user manager.
C. having programming responsibilities.
D. being responsible for LAN security administration.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A LAN administrator should not have programming responsibilities but may have end- user
responsibilities. The LAN administrator may report to the director of the IPF or, in a decentralized
operation, to the end-user manager. In small organizations, the LAN administrator also may be
responsible for security administration over the LAN.

NO.15 Which of the following devices extends the network and has the capacity to store frames and act as a
storage and forward device?
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A bridge connects two separate networks to form a logical network (e.g., joining an ethernet and token
network) and has the storage capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device. Bridges
operate at the OSI data link layer by examining the media access control header of a data packet.
Incorrect answers:
A. Routers are switching devices that operate at the OSI network layer by examining network addresses
(i.e., routing information encoded in an IP packet). The router, by examining the IP address, can make
intelligent decisions in directing the packet to its destination.
C. Repeaters amplify transmission signals to reach remote devices by taking a signal from a LAN,
reconditioning and retiming it, and sending it to another. This functionality is hardware encoded and
occurs at the OSI physical layer.
D. Gateways provide access paths to foreign networks.

NO.16 Which of the following tests is an IS auditor performing when a sample of programs is selected to
determine if the source and object versions are the same?
A. A substantive test of program library controls
B. A compliance test of program library controls
C. A compliance test of the program compiler controls
D. A substantive test of the program compiler controls
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A compliance test determines if controls are operating as designed and are being applied in a manner that
complies with management policies and procedures. For example, if the IS auditor is concerned whether
program library controls are working properly, the IS auditor might select a sample of programs to
determine if the source and object versions are the same. In other words, the broad objective of any
compliance test is to provide auditors with reasonable assurance that a particular control on which the
auditor plans to rely is operating as the auditor perceived it in the preliminary evaluation.

NO.17 Which of the following types of data validation editing checks is used to determine if a field contains
data, and not zeros or blanks?
A. Check digit
B. Existence check
C. Completeness check
D. Reasonableness check
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A completeness check is used to determine if a field contains data and not zeros or blanks. Incorrect
answers:
A. A check digit is a digit calculated mathematically to ensure original data was not altered.
B. An existence check also checks entered data for agreement to predetermined criteria.
D. A reasonableness check matches input to predetermined reasonable limits or occurrence rates.

NO.18 IS management has decided to rewrite a legacy customer relations system using fourth generation
languages (4GLs). Which of the following risks is MOST often associated with system development using
4GLs?
A. Inadequate screen/report design facilities
B. Complex programming language subsets
C. Lack of portability across operating systems
D. Inability to perform data intensive operations
Answer: D

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Explanation:
4.Ls are usually not suitable for data intensive operations. Instead, they are used mainly for graphic user
interface (GUI) design or as simple query/report generators.
Incorrect answers:
A, B. Screen/report design facilities are one of the main advantages of 4GLs, and 4GLs have simple
programming language subsets.
C. Portability is also one of the main advantages of 4GLs.

NO.19 A data administrator is responsible for: A. maintaining database system software.
B. defining data elements, data names and their relationship.
C. developing physical database structures.
D. developing data dictionary system software.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A data administrator is responsible for defining data elements, data names and their relationship. Choices
A, C and D are functions of a database administrator (DBA)

NO.20 Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a business process reengineering (BPR) project?
A. An increased number of people using technology
B. Significant cost savings, through a reduction in the complexity of information technology
C. A weaker organizational structures and less accountability
D. Increased information protection (IP) risk will increase
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A BPR project more often leads to an increased number of people using technology, and this would be a
cause for concern. Incorrect answers:
B. As BPR is often technology oriented, and this technology is usually more complex and volatile than in
the past, cost savings do not often materialize in this area.
D. There is no reason for IP to conflict with a BPR project, unless the project is not run properly.

NO.21 Which of the following systems-based approaches would a financial processing company employ to
monitor spending patterns to identify abnormal patterns and report them?
A. A neural network
B. Database management software
C. Management information systems
D. Computer assisted audit techniques
Answer: A Explanation:
A neural network will monitor and learn patterns, reporting exceptions for investigation. Incorrect answers:
B. Database management software is a method of storing and retrieving data.
C. Management information systems provide management statistics but do not normally have a
monitoring and detection function.
D. Computer-assisted audit techniques detect specific situations, but are not intended to learn patterns
and detect abnormalities.

NO.22 To affix a digital signature to a message, the sender must first create a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against:
A. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's private key.
B. any arbitrary part of the message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's
private key.
C. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message using the sender's private key.
D. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message along with the message digest using the
sender's private key.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A digital signature is a cryptographic method that ensures data integrity, authentication of the message,
and non-repudiation. To ensure these, the sender first creates a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message and thereafter enciphers the message digest
using the sender's private key. A message digest is created by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm
against the entire message not on any arbitrary part of the message. After creating the message digest,
only the message digest is enciphered using the sender's private key, not the message.

NO.23 Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool for the purpose of testing software modules?
A. Blackbox test
B. Desk checking
C. Structured walk-through
D. Design and code
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A blackbox test is a dynamic analysis tool for testing software modules. During the testing of software
modules a blackbox test works first in a cohesive manner as one single unit/entity, consisting of numerous
modules and second, with the user data that flows across software modules. In some cases, this even
drives the software behavior.
Incorrect answers:
In choices B, C and D, the software (design or code) remains static and somebody simply closely
examines it by applying his/her mind, without actually activating the software. Hence, these cannot be
referred to as dynamic analysis tools.

NO.24 The MOST significant level of effort for business continuity planning (BCP) generally is required during
the:
A. testing stage.
B. evaluation stage.
C. maintenance stage.
D. early stages of planning.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Company.com in the early stages of a BCP will incur the most significant level of program development
effort, which will level out as the BCP moves into maintenance, testing and evaluation stages. It is during
the planning stage that an IS auditor will play an important role in obtaining senior management's
commitment to resources and assignment of BCP responsibilities.

NO.25 In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
A. communications handler.
B. EDI translator.
C. application interface.
D. EDI interface.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A communications handler transmits and receives electronic documents between trading partners
and/or wide area networks (WANs).
Incorrect answers:
B. An EDI translator translates data between the standard format and a trading partner's proprietary
format.
C. An application interface moves electronic transactions to, or from, the application system and performs
data mapping.
D. An EDI interface manipulates and routes data between the application system and the communications
handler.

NO.26 A sequence of bits appended to a digital document that is used to secure an e-mail sent through the
Internet is called a:
A. digest signature.
B. electronic signature.
C. digital signature.
D. hash signature.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A digital signature through the private cryptographic key authenticates a transmission from a sender
through the private cryptographic key. It is a string of bits that uniquely represent another string of bits, a
digital document. An electronic signature refers to the string of bits that digitally represents a handwritten
signature captured by a computer system when a human applies it on an electronic pen pad, connected
to the system.

NO.27 Which of the following network configuration options contains a direct link between any two host
machines?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Completely connected (mesh)
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A completely connected mesh configuration creates a direct link between any two host machines.
Incorrect answers:
A. A bus configuration links all stations along one transmission line.
B. A ring configuration forms a circle, and all stations are attached to a point on the transmission circle.
D. In a star configuration each station is linked directly to a main hub.

NO.28 The use of a GANTT chart can:
A. aid in scheduling project tasks.
B. determine project checkpoints.
C. ensure documentation standards.
D. direct the post-implementation review.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A GANTT chart is used in project control. It may aid in the identification of needed checkpoints but its
primary use is in scheduling. It will not ensure the completion of documentation nor will it provide direction
for the post-implementation review.

NO.29 An offsite information processing facility having electrical wiring, air conditioning and flooring, but no
computer or communications equipment is a:
A. cold site.
B. warm site.
C. dial-up site.
D. duplicate processing facility.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A cold site is ready to receive equipment but does not offer any components at the site in advance of the
need.
Incorrect answers:
B. A warm site is an offsite backup facility that is configured partially with network connections and
selected peripheral equipment, such as disk and tape units, controllers and CPUs, to operate an
information processing facility.
D. A duplicate information processing facility is a dedicated, self-developed recovery site that can back up
critical applications.

NO.30 Structured programming is BEST described as a technique that:
A. provides knowledge of program functions to other programmers via peer reviews.
B. reduces the maintenance time of programs by the use of small-scale program modules.
C. makes the readable coding reflect as closely as possible the dynamic execution of the program.
D. controls the coding and testing of the high-level functions of the program in the development process.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A characteristic of structured programming is smaller, workable units. Structured programming has
evolved because smaller, workable units are easier to maintain. Structured programming is a style of
programming which restricts the kinds of control structures. This limitation is not crippling. Any program
can be written with allowed control structures. Structured programming is sometimes referred to as
go-to-less programming, since a go-to statement is not allowed. This is perhaps the most well known
restriction of the style, since go-to statements were common at the time structured programming was
becoming more popular. Statement labels also become unnecessary, except in languages where
subroutines are identified by labels.

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2014年2月14日星期五

L'avènement de la certification ISACA pratique d'examen CISM questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CISM
Nom d'Examen: ISACA (Certified Information Security Manager)
Questions et réponses: 633 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is characteristic of centralized information security management?
A. More expensive to administer
B. Better adherence to policies
C. More aligned with business unit needs
D. Faster turnaround of requests
Answer: B

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NO.2 In order to highlight to management the importance of integrating information security in the business
processes, a newly hired information security officer should FIRST:
A. prepare a security budget.
B. conduct a risk assessment.
C. develop an information security policy.
D. obtain benchmarking information.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What will have the HIGHEST impact on standard information security governance models?
A. Number of employees
B. Distance between physical locations
C. Complexity of organizational structure
D. Organizational budget
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is responsible for legal and regulatory liability?
A. Chief security officer (CSO)
B. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
C. Board and senior management
D. Information security steering group
Answer: C

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NO.5 Who in an organization has the responsibility for classifying information?
A. Data custodian
B. Database administrator
C. Information security officer
D. Data owner
Answer: D

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NO.6 Senior management commitment and support for information security can BEST be obtained through
presentations that:
A. use illustrative examples of successful attacks.
B. explain the technical risks to the organization.
C. evaluate the organization against best security practices.
D. tie security risks to key business objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is MOST important in developing a security strategy?
A. Creating a positive business security environment
B. Understanding key business objectives
C. Having a reporting line to senior management
D. Allocating sufficient resources to information security
Answer: B

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NO.8 Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
A. ability to mitigate business risks
B. evaluations in trade publications
C. use of new and emerging technologies
D. benefits in comparison to their costs
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following will BEST protect an organization from internal security attacks?
A. Static IP addressing
B. Internal address translation
C. Prospective employee background checks
D. Employee awareness certification program
Answer: C

ISACA   certification CISM   CISM examen   CISM

NO.10 It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
A. Industry best practices
B. Information technology plans
C. Information security best practices
D. Business objectives and goals
Answer: D

ISACA   CISM examen   certification CISM   CISM

NO.11 Which of the following results from the risk assessment process would BEST assist risk management
decision making?
A. Control risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Risk exposure
D. Residual risk
Answer: D

certification ISACA   CISM   CISM   certification CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.12 The PRIMARY goal in developing an information security strategy is to:
A. establish security metrics and performance monitoring.
B. educate business process owners regarding their duties.
C. ensure that legal and regulatory requirements are met.
D. support the business objectives of the organization.
Answer: D

ISACA examen   CISM   certification CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.13 Risk management programs are designed to reduce risk to:
A. a level that is too small to be measurable.
B. the point at which the benefit exceeds the expense.
C. a level that the organization is willing to accept.
D. a rate of return that equals the current cost of capital.
Answer: C

ISACA   CISM   CISM   CISM examen

NO.14 Temporarily deactivating some monitoring processes, even if supported by an acceptance of
operational risk, may not be acceptable to the information security manager if:
A. it implies compliance risks.
B. short-term impact cannot be determined.
C. it violates industry security practices.
D. changes in the roles matrix cannot be detected.
Answer: A

ISACA   CISM   CISM examen   CISM   CISM examen   CISM

NO.15 Identification and prioritization of business risk enables project managers to:
A. establish implementation milestones.
B. reduce the overall amount of slack time.
C. address areas with most significance.
D. accelerate completion of critical paths.
Answer: C

certification ISACA   certification CISM   CISM examen   CISM   CISM

NO.16 Logging is an example of which type of defense against systems compromise?
A. Containment
B. Detection
C. Reaction
D. Recovery
Answer: B

ISACA   CISM   CISM   CISM examen

NO.17 The MOST important component of a privacy policy is:
A. notifications
B. warranties
C. liabilities
D. geographic coverage
Answer: A

ISACA examen   certification CISM   CISM examen   certification CISM   CISM

NO.18 Based on the information provided, which of the following situations presents the GREATEST
information security risk for an organization with multiple, but small, domestic processing locations?
A. Systems operation procedures are not enforced
B. Change management procedures are poor
C. Systems development is outsourced
D. Systems capacity management is not performed
Answer: B

ISACA examen   certification CISM   CISM   certification CISM

NO.19 What would a security manager PRIMARILY utilize when proposing the implementation of a security
solution?
A. Risk assessment report
B. Technical evaluation report
C. Business case
D. Budgetary requirements
Answer: C

ISACA   CISM   CISM

NO.20 Which of the following factors is a primary driver for information security governance that does not
require any further justification?
A. Alignment with industry best practices
B. Business continuity investment
C. Business benefits
D. Regulatory compliance
Answer: D

certification ISACA   CISM examen   CISM examen   CISM

NO.21 From an information security manager perspective, what is the immediate benefit of clearly-defined
roles and responsibilities?
A. Enhanced policy compliance
B. Improved procedure flows
C. Segregation of duties
D. Better accountability
Answer: D

ISACA   CISM   CISM examen   CISM examen   certification CISM   certification CISM

NO.22 A risk assessment should be conducted:
A. once a year for each business process andsubprocess.
B. every three-to-six months for critical business processes.
C. by external parties to maintain objectivity.
D. annually or whenever there is a significant change.
Answer: D

ISACA   certification CISM   CISM

NO.23 Which of the following BEST describes an information security manager's role in a multidisciplinary
team that will address a new regulatory requirement regarding operational risk?
A. Ensure that all IT risks are identified
B. Evaluate the impact of information security risks
C. Demonstrate that IT mitigating controls are in place
D. Suggest new IT controls to mitigate operational risk
Answer: B

ISACA   CISM   CISM   CISM examen

NO.24 What is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in the process of information
classification within an organization?
A. Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets
B. Deciding the classification levels applied to the organization's information assets
C. Securing information assets in accordance with their classification
D. Checking if information assets have been classified properly
Answer: A

ISACA examen   CISM   CISM examen   certification CISM   CISM

NO.25 An information security manager at a global organization that is subject to regulation by multiple
governmental jurisdictions with differing requirements should:
A. bring all locations into conformity with the aggregate requirements of all governmental jurisdictions.
B. establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required.
C. bring all locations into conformity with a generally accepted set of industry best practices.
D. establish a baseline standard incorporating those requirements that all jurisdictions have in common.
Answer: B

ISACA   CISM examen   CISM examen   CISM

NO.26 A security manager meeting the requirements for the international flow of personal data will need to
ensure:
A. a data processing agreement.
B. a data protection registration.
C. the agreement of the data subjects.
D. subject access procedures.
Answer: C

ISACA examen   CISM   CISM   CISM   CISM examen

NO.27 An internal audit has identified major weaknesses over IT processing. Which of the following should an
information security manager use to BEST convey a sense of urgency to management?
A. Security metrics reports
B. Risk assessment reports
C. Business impact analysis (BIA)
D. Return on security investment report
Answer: B

ISACA   CISM   CISM examen   certification CISM

NO.28 To achieve effective strategic alignment of security initiatives, it is important that:
A. steering committee leadershipbe selected by rotation.
B. inputs be obtained and consensus achieved between the major organizational units.
C. the business strategybe updated periodically.
D. procedures and standardsbe approved by all departmental heads.
Answer: B

ISACA   CISM   certification CISM

NO.29 Acceptable risk is achieved when:
A. residual risk is minimized.
B. transferred risk is minimized.
C. control risk is minimized.
D. inherent risk is minimized.
Answer: A

ISACA   CISM   CISM examen   CISM

NO.30 How would an information security manager balance the potentially conflicting requirements of an
international organization's security standards and local regulation?
A. Give organization standards preference over local regulations
B. Follow local regulations only
C. Make the organization aware of those standards where local regulations causes conflicts
D. Negotiate a local version of the organization standards
Answer: D

ISACA examen   CISM examen   certification CISM   CISM   CISM

Pass4Test est un site particulier à offrir les guides de formation à propos de test certificat IT. La version plus nouvelle de Q&A ISACA CISM peut répondre sûrement une grande demande des candidats. Comme tout le monde le connait, le certificat ISACA CISM est un point important pendant l'interview dans les grandes entreprises IT. Ça peut expliquer un pourquoi ce test est si populaire. En même temps, Pass4Test est connu par tout le monde. Choisir le Pass4Test, choisir le succès. Votre argent sera tout rendu si malheureusement vous ne passe pas le test ISACA CISM.

2013年8月14日星期三

Pass4Test offre de ISACA CISM matériaux d'essai

Différentes façons peuvent atteindre le même but, ça dépend laquelle que vous prenez. Beaucoup de gens choisissent le test ISACA CISM pour améliorer la vie et la carrière. Mais tous les gens ont déjà participé le test ISACA CISM, ils savent qu'il est difficile à réussir le test. Il y a quelques dépensent le temps et l'argent, mais ratent finalement.


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Pass4Test a une équipe se composant des experts qui font la recherche particulièrement des exercices et des Q&As pour le test certification ISACA CISM, d'ailleurs ils peuvent vous proposer à propos de choisir l'outil de se former en ligne. Si vous avez envie d'acheter une Q&A de Pass4Test, Pass4Test vous offrira de matériaux plus détailés et plus nouveaux pour vous aider à approcher au maximum le test réel. Assurez-vous de choisir le Pass4Test, vous réussirez 100% le test ISACA CISM.


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Code d'Examen: CISM

Nom d'Examen: ISACA (Certified Information Security Manager)

Questions et réponses: 633 Q&As

CISM Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/CISM.html


NO.1 The PRIMARY goal in developing an information security strategy is to:
A. establish security metrics and performance monitoring.
B. educate business process owners regarding their duties.
C. ensure that legal and regulatory requirements are met.
D. support the business objectives of the organization.
Answer: D

ISACA examen   certification CISM   CISM   certification CISM

NO.2 What will have the HIGHEST impact on standard information security governance models?
A. Number of employees
B. Distance between physical locations
C. Complexity of organizational structure
D. Organizational budget
Answer: C

ISACA   certification CISM   certification CISM   CISM examen

NO.3 Which of the following is characteristic of centralized information security management?
A. More expensive to administer
B. Better adherence to policies
C. More aligned with business unit needs
D. Faster turnaround of requests
Answer: B

ISACA   certification CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.4 Who in an organization has the responsibility for classifying information?
A. Data custodian
B. Database administrator
C. Information security officer
D. Data owner
Answer: D

ISACA   CISM examen   CISM

NO.5 Logging is an example of which type of defense against systems compromise?
A. Containment
B. Detection
C. Reaction
D. Recovery
Answer: B

ISACA   certification CISM   CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.6 Senior management commitment and support for information security can BEST be obtained through
presentations that:
A. use illustrative examples of successful attacks.
B. explain the technical risks to the organization.
C. evaluate the organization against best security practices.
D. tie security risks to key business objectives.
Answer: D

ISACA   CISM examen   CISM   certification CISM   CISM

NO.7 An internal audit has identified major weaknesses over IT processing. Which of the following should an
information security manager use to BEST convey a sense of urgency to management?
A. Security metrics reports
B. Risk assessment reports
C. Business impact analysis (BIA)
D. Return on security investment report
Answer: B

certification ISACA   CISM examen   CISM   CISM

NO.8 A risk assessment should be conducted:
A. once a year for each business process andsubprocess.
B. every three-to-six months for critical business processes.
C. by external parties to maintain objectivity.
D. annually or whenever there is a significant change.
Answer: D

ISACA examen   CISM   CISM

NO.9 Temporarily deactivating some monitoring processes, even if supported by an acceptance of
operational risk, may not be acceptable to the information security manager if:
A. it implies compliance risks.
B. short-term impact cannot be determined.
C. it violates industry security practices.
D. changes in the roles matrix cannot be detected.
Answer: A

ISACA examen   certification CISM   CISM examen   CISM

NO.10 The MOST important component of a privacy policy is:
A. notifications
B. warranties
C. liabilities
D. geographic coverage
Answer: A

ISACA   CISM examen   certification CISM

NO.11 What is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in the process of information
classification within an organization?
A. Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets
B. Deciding the classification levels applied to the organization's information assets
C. Securing information assets in accordance with their classification
D. Checking if information assets have been classified properly
Answer: A

ISACA   CISM   CISM   CISM   certification CISM

NO.12 Identification and prioritization of business risk enables project managers to:
A. establish implementation milestones.
B. reduce the overall amount of slack time.
C. address areas with most significance.
D. accelerate completion of critical paths.
Answer: C

ISACA   CISM   certification CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.13 It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
A. Industry best practices
B. Information technology plans
C. Information security best practices
D. Business objectives and goals
Answer: D

ISACA   certification CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.14 Which of the following is MOST important in developing a security strategy?
A. Creating a positive business security environment
B. Understanding key business objectives
C. Having a reporting line to senior management
D. Allocating sufficient resources to information security
Answer: B

ISACA   certification CISM   certification CISM   certification CISM

NO.15 Which of the following results from the risk assessment process would BEST assist risk management
decision making?
A. Control risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Risk exposure
D. Residual risk
Answer: D

ISACA   CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.16 What would a security manager PRIMARILY utilize when proposing the implementation of a security
solution?
A. Risk assessment report
B. Technical evaluation report
C. Business case
D. Budgetary requirements
Answer: C

ISACA   CISM examen   certification CISM   CISM

NO.17 Which of the following is responsible for legal and regulatory liability?
A. Chief security officer (CSO)
B. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
C. Board and senior management
D. Information security steering group
Answer: C

ISACA   CISM examen   CISM examen

NO.18 An information security manager at a global organization that is subject to regulation by multiple
governmental jurisdictions with differing requirements should:
A. bring all locations into conformity with the aggregate requirements of all governmental jurisdictions.
B. establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required.
C. bring all locations into conformity with a generally accepted set of industry best practices.
D. establish a baseline standard incorporating those requirements that all jurisdictions have in common.
Answer: B

certification ISACA   CISM   certification CISM

NO.19 Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
A. ability to mitigate business risks
B. evaluations in trade publications
C. use of new and emerging technologies
D. benefits in comparison to their costs
Answer: A

ISACA examen   CISM   certification CISM   CISM

NO.20 Risk management programs are designed to reduce risk to:
A. a level that is too small to be measurable.
B. the point at which the benefit exceeds the expense.
C. a level that the organization is willing to accept.
D. a rate of return that equals the current cost of capital.
Answer: C

ISACA   CISM examen   CISM examen

NO.21 Which of the following BEST describes an information security manager's role in a multidisciplinary
team that will address a new regulatory requirement regarding operational risk?
A. Ensure that all IT risks are identified
B. Evaluate the impact of information security risks
C. Demonstrate that IT mitigating controls are in place
D. Suggest new IT controls to mitigate operational risk
Answer: B

ISACA examen   CISM   CISM

NO.22 To achieve effective strategic alignment of security initiatives, it is important that:
A. steering committee leadershipbe selected by rotation.
B. inputs be obtained and consensus achieved between the major organizational units.
C. the business strategybe updated periodically.
D. procedures and standardsbe approved by all departmental heads.
Answer: B

ISACA   certification CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.23 How would an information security manager balance the potentially conflicting requirements of an
international organization's security standards and local regulation?
A. Give organization standards preference over local regulations
B. Follow local regulations only
C. Make the organization aware of those standards where local regulations causes conflicts
D. Negotiate a local version of the organization standards
Answer: D

certification ISACA   CISM examen   CISM   CISM

NO.24 In order to highlight to management the importance of integrating information security in the business
processes, a newly hired information security officer should FIRST:
A. prepare a security budget.
B. conduct a risk assessment.
C. develop an information security policy.
D. obtain benchmarking information.
Answer: B

ISACA   CISM   CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.25 From an information security manager perspective, what is the immediate benefit of clearly-defined
roles and responsibilities?
A. Enhanced policy compliance
B. Improved procedure flows
C. Segregation of duties
D. Better accountability
Answer: D

ISACA examen   certification CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.26 Acceptable risk is achieved when:
A. residual risk is minimized.
B. transferred risk is minimized.
C. control risk is minimized.
D. inherent risk is minimized.
Answer: A

ISACA   certification CISM   certification CISM   CISM examen

NO.27 Which of the following will BEST protect an organization from internal security attacks?
A. Static IP addressing
B. Internal address translation
C. Prospective employee background checks
D. Employee awareness certification program
Answer: C

ISACA   CISM examen   CISM   CISM

NO.28 A security manager meeting the requirements for the international flow of personal data will need to
ensure:
A. a data processing agreement.
B. a data protection registration.
C. the agreement of the data subjects.
D. subject access procedures.
Answer: C

certification ISACA   CISM examen   CISM   certification CISM

NO.29 Which of the following factors is a primary driver for information security governance that does not
require any further justification?
A. Alignment with industry best practices
B. Business continuity investment
C. Business benefits
D. Regulatory compliance
Answer: D

ISACA   CISM   CISM

NO.30 Based on the information provided, which of the following situations presents the GREATEST
information security risk for an organization with multiple, but small, domestic processing locations?
A. Systems operation procedures are not enforced
B. Change management procedures are poor
C. Systems development is outsourced
D. Systems capacity management is not performed
Answer: B

ISACA   CISM examen   CISM examen   certification CISM

Pass4Test est un fournisseur de formation pour une courte terme, et Pass4Test peut vous assurer le succès de test ISACA CISM. Si malheureusement, vous échouez le test, votre argent sera tout rendu. Vous pouvez télécharger le démo gratuit avant de choisir Pass4Test. Au moment là, vous serez confiant sur Pass4Test.


Guide de formation plus récente de ISACA CRISC

Si vous voulez ne se soucier plus à passer le test ISACA CRISC, donc vous devez prendre la Q&A de Pass4Test comme le guide d'étude pendant la préparation de test ISACA CRISC. C'est une bonne affaire parce que un petit invertissement peut vous rendre beaucoup. Utiliser la Q&A ISACA CRISC offerte par Pass4Test peut vous assurer à réussir le test 100%. Pass4Test a toujours une bonne réputation dans l'Industrie IT.


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Pass4Test a une grande équipe composée des experts d'expérience dans l'industrie IT. Leurs connaissances professionnelles et les recherches font une bonne Q&A, qui vous permet à passer le test ISACA CRISC. Dans Pass4Test, vous pouvez trouver une façon plus convenable à se former. Les resources de Pass4Test sont bien fiable. Choisissez Pass4Test, choisissez un raccourci à réussir le test ISACA CRISC.


Code d'Examen: CRISC

Nom d'Examen: ISACA (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control)

Questions et réponses: 395 Q&As

Tant que vous avez besion de participer l'examen, nous pouvons toujours mettre à jour de matériaux à propos de test Certification ISACA CRISC. Le guide d'étude de Pass4Test comprend les excercices de ISACA CRISC et la Q&A qui peut vous permetrre à réussir 100% le test ISACA CRISC. Vous pouvez faire une meilleure préparation pour le test. D'ailleurs, la mise à jour pendant un an après vendre est gratuite pour vous.


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Vous ISACA CRISC pouvez télécharger le démo ISACA CRISC gratuit dans le site Pass4Test pour essayer notre qualité. Une fois vous achetez le produit de Pass4Test, nous allons faire tous effort à vous aider à réussir le test à la première fois et vous laisser savoir qu'il ne faut pas beaucoup de travaux pour réussir ce que vous voulez.


2013年7月10日星期三

Certification ISACA de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen CISM, questions et réponses

Le Pass4Test est un site qui peut offrir les facilités aux candidats et aider les candidats à réaliser leurs rêve. Si vous êtes souci de votre test Certification, Pass4Test peut vous rendre heureux. La haute précision et la grande couverture de la Q&A de Pass4Test vous aidera pendant la préparation de test. Vous n'aurez aucune raison de regretter parce que Pass4Test réalisera votre rêve.


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Code d'Examen: CISM

Nom d'Examen: ISACA (Certified Information Security Manager)

Questions et réponses: 633 Q&As

Bien qu'il ne soit pas facile à réussir le test ISACA CISM, c'est très improtant à choisir un bon outil de se former. Pass4Test a bien préparé les documentatinos et les exercices pour vous aider à réussir 100% le test. Pass4Test peut non seulement d'être une assurance du succès de votre test ISACA CISM, mais encore à vous aider d'économiser votre temps.


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Selon les anciens test ISACA CISM, la Q&A offerte par Pass4Test est bien liée avec le test réel.


CISM Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/CISM.html


NO.1 An information security manager at a global organization that is subject to regulation by multiple
governmental jurisdictions with differing requirements should:
A. bring all locations into conformity with the aggregate requirements of all governmental jurisdictions.
B. establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required.
C. bring all locations into conformity with a generally accepted set of industry best practices.
D. establish a baseline standard incorporating those requirements that all jurisdictions have in common.
Answer: B

ISACA examen   CISM   CISM   certification CISM   certification CISM

NO.2 Who in an organization has the responsibility for classifying information?
A. Data custodian
B. Database administrator
C. Information security officer
D. Data owner
Answer: D

certification ISACA   CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.3 Which of the following will BEST protect an organization from internal security attacks?
A. Static IP addressing
B. Internal address translation
C. Prospective employee background checks
D. Employee awareness certification program
Answer: C

certification ISACA   CISM   CISM

NO.4 Senior management commitment and support for information security can BEST be obtained through
presentations that:
A. use illustrative examples of successful attacks.
B. explain the technical risks to the organization.
C. evaluate the organization against best security practices.
D. tie security risks to key business objectives.
Answer: D

ISACA   CISM   certification CISM   certification CISM   certification CISM

NO.5 Which of the following is characteristic of centralized information security management?
A. More expensive to administer
B. Better adherence to policies
C. More aligned with business unit needs
D. Faster turnaround of requests
Answer: B

certification ISACA   CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.6 To achieve effective strategic alignment of security initiatives, it is important that:
A. steering committee leadershipbe selected by rotation.
B. inputs be obtained and consensus achieved between the major organizational units.
C. the business strategybe updated periodically.
D. procedures and standardsbe approved by all departmental heads.
Answer: B

ISACA examen   certification CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.7 What would a security manager PRIMARILY utilize when proposing the implementation of a security
solution?
A. Risk assessment report
B. Technical evaluation report
C. Business case
D. Budgetary requirements
Answer: C

certification ISACA   CISM   certification CISM

NO.8 Temporarily deactivating some monitoring processes, even if supported by an acceptance of
operational risk, may not be acceptable to the information security manager if:
A. it implies compliance risks.
B. short-term impact cannot be determined.
C. it violates industry security practices.
D. changes in the roles matrix cannot be detected.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
A. ability to mitigate business risks
B. evaluations in trade publications
C. use of new and emerging technologies
D. benefits in comparison to their costs
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following factors is a primary driver for information security governance that does not
require any further justification?
A. Alignment with industry best practices
B. Business continuity investment
C. Business benefits
D. Regulatory compliance
Answer: D

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NO.11 A security manager meeting the requirements for the international flow of personal data will need to
ensure:
A. a data processing agreement.
B. a data protection registration.
C. the agreement of the data subjects.
D. subject access procedures.
Answer: C

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NO.12 The MOST important component of a privacy policy is:
A. notifications
B. warranties
C. liabilities
D. geographic coverage
Answer: A

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NO.13 What will have the HIGHEST impact on standard information security governance models?
A. Number of employees
B. Distance between physical locations
C. Complexity of organizational structure
D. Organizational budget
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following is MOST important in developing a security strategy?
A. Creating a positive business security environment
B. Understanding key business objectives
C. Having a reporting line to senior management
D. Allocating sufficient resources to information security
Answer: B

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NO.15 Logging is an example of which type of defense against systems compromise?
A. Containment
B. Detection
C. Reaction
D. Recovery
Answer: B

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NO.16 In order to highlight to management the importance of integrating information security in the business
processes, a newly hired information security officer should FIRST:
A. prepare a security budget.
B. conduct a risk assessment.
C. develop an information security policy.
D. obtain benchmarking information.
Answer: B

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NO.17 A risk assessment should be conducted:
A. once a year for each business process andsubprocess.
B. every three-to-six months for critical business processes.
C. by external parties to maintain objectivity.
D. annually or whenever there is a significant change.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Based on the information provided, which of the following situations presents the GREATEST
information security risk for an organization with multiple, but small, domestic processing locations?
A. Systems operation procedures are not enforced
B. Change management procedures are poor
C. Systems development is outsourced
D. Systems capacity management is not performed
Answer: B

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NO.19 Identification and prioritization of business risk enables project managers to:
A. establish implementation milestones.
B. reduce the overall amount of slack time.
C. address areas with most significance.
D. accelerate completion of critical paths.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following BEST describes an information security manager's role in a multidisciplinary
team that will address a new regulatory requirement regarding operational risk?
A. Ensure that all IT risks are identified
B. Evaluate the impact of information security risks
C. Demonstrate that IT mitigating controls are in place
D. Suggest new IT controls to mitigate operational risk
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of the following results from the risk assessment process would BEST assist risk management
decision making?
A. Control risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Risk exposure
D. Residual risk
Answer: D

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NO.22 From an information security manager perspective, what is the immediate benefit of clearly-defined
roles and responsibilities?
A. Enhanced policy compliance
B. Improved procedure flows
C. Segregation of duties
D. Better accountability
Answer: D

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NO.23 The PRIMARY goal in developing an information security strategy is to:
A. establish security metrics and performance monitoring.
B. educate business process owners regarding their duties.
C. ensure that legal and regulatory requirements are met.
D. support the business objectives of the organization.
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following is responsible for legal and regulatory liability?
A. Chief security officer (CSO)
B. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
C. Board and senior management
D. Information security steering group
Answer: C

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NO.25 Acceptable risk is achieved when:
A. residual risk is minimized.
B. transferred risk is minimized.
C. control risk is minimized.
D. inherent risk is minimized.
Answer: A

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NO.26 How would an information security manager balance the potentially conflicting requirements of an
international organization's security standards and local regulation?
A. Give organization standards preference over local regulations
B. Follow local regulations only
C. Make the organization aware of those standards where local regulations causes conflicts
D. Negotiate a local version of the organization standards
Answer: D

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NO.27 An internal audit has identified major weaknesses over IT processing. Which of the following should an
information security manager use to BEST convey a sense of urgency to management?
A. Security metrics reports
B. Risk assessment reports
C. Business impact analysis (BIA)
D. Return on security investment report
Answer: B

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NO.28 It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
A. Industry best practices
B. Information technology plans
C. Information security best practices
D. Business objectives and goals
Answer: D

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NO.29 Risk management programs are designed to reduce risk to:
A. a level that is too small to be measurable.
B. the point at which the benefit exceeds the expense.
C. a level that the organization is willing to accept.
D. a rate of return that equals the current cost of capital.
Answer: C

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NO.30 What is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in the process of information
classification within an organization?
A. Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets
B. Deciding the classification levels applied to the organization's information assets
C. Securing information assets in accordance with their classification
D. Checking if information assets have been classified properly
Answer: A

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