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2014年10月22日星期三

Le plus récent matériel de formation IIA IIA-CIA-Part4

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part4
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 4, Business Management Skills)
Questions et réponses: 535 Q&As

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NO.1 For a multinational firm, which of the following is a disadvantage of an ethnocentric staffing
policy in which all key management positions are filled by parent-company nationals?
A. An ethnocentric staffing policy significantly raises compensation, training, and staffing costs.
B. An ethnocentric staffing policy produces resentment among the firm's employees in host
countries.
C. An ethnocentric staffing policy limits career mobility for parent-country nationals.
D. An ethnocentric staffing policy isolates headquarters from foreign subsidiaries.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
An ethnocentric staffing policy has the advantage that expatriates may understand the objectives,
policies, and procedures of the parent firm better than local employees do.
However, ethnocentrism in hiring has the following disadvantages, among others:
(1) Expatriate managers have difficulty in adapting to a new culture, language, and physical
environment;
(2)training and relocation costs may be high;
(3)host-country governments prefer local control;
(4)the morale and performance of host-country employees will suffer.

NO.2 Which of the following concepts is not consistent with a successful authoritarian organization?
A. Each subordinate should only have one superior.
B. Superiors may have as many subordinates as possible within the superior's span of control.
C. Responsibility may be delegated.
D. The hierarchy of authority should be precisely defined.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Taylor, Fayol, and other traditionalists advocated the creation of authoritarian organizations. One of
the criteria for success was the ability to delegate authority but not responsibility. Responsibility
should always remain with the person who made the decision.

NO.3 The General Electric (GE) portfolio model for competitive analysis of strategic business units
(SBUs) should be compared with the Boston Consulting Croup's growth-share matrix. The GE model:
A. Is a matrix with two variables:relative market share and market growth rate.
B. Calculates an index for each of its two variables.
C. Considers such factors for business strength as market size, growth rate, and price levels.
D. Considers such factors for market attractiveness as market share, growth rate, and marketing
skills.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The GE model is a multifactor portfolio matrix with two variables. Business strength or competitive
position (BUS) is on one axis, and market attractiveness (MAT) is on the other. BUS is classified as
strong, medium, or weak, and MAT is classified as high, medium, or low. Thus, the matrix in this
model is 3 x 3 and has nine cells. SBUs are shown in the matrix as circles. Circle size is directly
proportional to the size of the related market, with a shaded portion in the circle that represents
the SBU's market share. To measure BUS and MAT, the firm must isolate the multiple factors
affecting each, quantify them, and create an index. Factors will vary with each business. The
measurements will provide the values on the axes of the matrix.

NO.4 Rivalry among existing firms in an industry is more likely to be strong when:
A. The industry is in the rapid growth stage.
B. Investment intensity is low.
C. A few firms are dominant.
D. Capacity must be expanded in large increments.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The intensity of rivalry and the threat of entry may vary with the extent of capacity expansion
dictated by the need to achieve economics of scale. If it must be made in large increments to
achieve economics of scale, competition will be more intense. The need for large-scale expansion to
achieve production efficiency may result in an excess of industry capacity over demand. However, if
capacity may be expanded in small increments, industry capacity is less likely to be excessive, the
supply-demand balance is less likely to be upset, and price cutting is less likely to be necessary.

NO.5 A small engineering consulting firm accepts special projects from customers in a variety of
fields. Its choice of an organic organizational design was most likely based on its:
A. Lack of concern for self-fulfillment of employees.
B. Preference for formal communication.
C. Adoption of directive leadership style.
D. Participative decision making processes.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The organic structure is best suited to a company that emphasizes operational efficiency less than
the flexibility needed to respond quickly to changes in its environment and the creativity to find
solutions to new problems. Decision making in this context tends to rely on input from many
sources and requires multidirectional communication. Hence, a horizontal or flat structure typified
by project or matrix management will be appropriate.

NO.6 According to research on the international contingency model of leadership, which path-goal
leadership style is most likely to be accepted around the world as culturally appropriate?
A. Directive.
B. Participative.
C. Supportive.
D. Achievement-oriented.
Answer: B

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part4   IIA-CIA-Part4 examen
Explanation:
A participative style entails consultation with employees and serious attention to their ideas. The
participative style, although not always the best, is the most widely accepted internationally. Every
country surveyed found it to be culturally acceptable.

NO.7 Some studies show that managers spend 60 to 70% of their time communicating and that
nearly 60% of that time is spent listening. Listening effectiveness is best increased by:
A. Resisting both internal and external distractions.
B. Waiting to review key concepts until the speaker is through talking.
C. Tuning out messages that do not seem to fit the meeting purpose.
D. Factoring in biases to evaluate the information being given.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Concentrating on what the speaker is saying is critical to effective listening. This result is best
achieved by resisting internal and external distractions. Physical distractions such as noise, a
tendency to be overly aware of the speaker's physical and other differences from the listener,
focusing on interesting details at the expense of major points, or emotional reactions to a statement
with which the listener disagrees should be avoided.

NO.8 Which of the following is least likely to be an example of synergy?
A. A shopping mall with several businesses providing different products and performing different
services.
B. A car dealership providing warranties on automobile parts to maximize customer value.
C. A manufacturing company hiring a new manager with technological experience lacking in the
company.
D. Military Humvees being converted into sports utility vehicles for sale to civilians.
Answer: B

certification IIA   IIA-CIA-Part4 examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part4
Explanation:
Synergy occurs when the combination of formerly separate elements has a greater effect than the
sum of their individual effects.
However, a car dealership's provision of warranties reflects anoperational strategy designed to
provide post-purchase services to gain a competitive advantage and maximize customer value. It
does not reflect the complementary sharing of resources, technology, or competencies. In contrast,
synergy arises from selling a line of carsthat share some components or abrand identification.

2014年7月31日星期四

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part4
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 4, Business Management Skills)
Questions et réponses: 535 Q&As

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NO.1 A corporation is performing research to determine the feasibility of entering the truck rental
industry.The decision to enter the market is most likely to be deterred if:
A. Buyer switching costs are high.
B. Buyers view the product as differentiated.
C. The market is dominated by a small consortium of buyers.
D. Buyers enjoy large profit margins.
Answer: C

IIA examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part4   certification IIA-CIA-Part4   certification IIA-CIA-Part4
Explanation:
When purchasing power is concentrated in a few buyers or when buyers are well organized, their
bargaining power is greater. This effect is reinforced when sellers are in a capitalintensive industry,
such as trucking.

NO.2 A small engineering consulting firm accepts special projects from customers in a variety of
fields. Its choice of an organic organizational design was most likely based on its:
A. Lack of concern for self-fulfillment of employees.
B. Preference for formal communication.
C. Adoption of directive leadership style.
D. Participative decision making processes.
Answer: D

certification IIA   certification IIA-CIA-Part4   IIA-CIA-Part4
Explanation:
The organic structure is best suited to a company that emphasizes operational efficiency less than
the flexibility needed to respond quickly to changes in its environment and the creativity to find
solutions to new problems. Decision making in this context tends to rely on input from many
sources and requires multidirectional communication. Hence, a horizontal or flat structure typified
by project or matrix management will be appropriate.

NO.3 Which of the following is least likely to be an example of synergy?
A. A shopping mall with several businesses providing different products and performing different
services.
B. A car dealership providing warranties on automobile parts to maximize customer value.
C. A manufacturing company hiring a new manager with technological experience lacking in the
company.
D. Military Humvees being converted into sports utility vehicles for sale to civilians.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Synergy occurs when the combination of formerly separate elements has a greater effect than the
sum of their individual effects.
However, a car dealership's provision of warranties reflects anoperational strategy designed to
provide post-purchase services to gain a competitive advantage and maximize customer value. It
does not reflect the complementary sharing of resources, technology, or competencies. In contrast,
synergy arises from selling a line of carsthat share some components or abrand identification.

NO.4 Strategic management includes developing the organization's grand strategy. This strategy is
based on:
A. Existing strategic business units (SBUs).
B. A SWOT analysis.
C. Portfolio management of the organization's businesses.
D. Strategic planning.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Strategic management is a process that includes development of a grand strategy that describes
how the organization's mission is to be achieved. This strategy is based on a situational analysis that
considers organizational strengths and weaknesses (a capability profile) and their interactions with
environmental opportunities and threats. Such an evaluation is also called a SWOT analysis.
Strengths and weaknesses (the internal environment) are usually identified by considering the firm's
capabilities and resources. What the firm does particularly well or has in greater abundance are
known as core competencies. Opportunities and threats (the external environment) are identified
by considering macroenvironment factors (economic, demographic, political, legal, social, cultural,
and technical) and microenvironment factors (suppliers, customers, distributors, competitors, and
other competitive factors in the industry).

NO.5 The creation of regional free trade zones is a global phenomenon. Trade barriers are lowered
in these areas, and other steps are taken to promote economic cooperation. For example, a
common currency has been adopted by the nations of:
A. NAFTA.
B. Mercosul.
C. APEC.
D. The European Union.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The European Union (Eli) is a collection of 27 European nations that have lowered trade barriers
among member states, and most of the nations share a common currency and trade policy. The
euro is the common currency of the European Union.

NO.6 The organizational culture may encourage politics by creating unreasonable obstacles to
group and individual advancement. Which type of political tactic involves taking credit for another
person's work?
A. Loyalty cliques.
B. Destructive competition.
C. Empire building.
D. Posturing.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Posturing is an attempt to make a good impression, for example, by taking credit for others' work or
seeking to stay one jump ahead of a rival.

NO.7 Which of the following factors is least typical of an industry that faces intense competitive
rivalry?
A. Price-cutting.
B. Large advertising budgets.
C. Frequent introduction of new products.
D. A high threat of substitutes.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A high threat of substitutes reduces the attractiveness of an industry. It tends to increase the price
elasticity of demand and therefore limits price increases and profit margins. If other factors are
constant, fewer entrants result in less intense competition.

NO.8 With the shift in some countries' economies toward service industries, a new form of
organization has developed. This organization structure is referred to as the professional
bureaucracy. While this structure resembles the machine bureaucracy which relies on standardized
work processes) in several respects, it is different in one key aspect. This significant difference is that
in a professional bureaucracy:
A. Senior management has had to give up a substantial amount of control.
B. Tasks are accomplished with a high degree of efficiency.
C. There is strict adherence to rules.
D. There is a tendency for subunit conflicts to develop.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A professional bureaucracy e.g., a university or library) is a complex and formal but decentralized
organization in which highly trained specialists have great autonomy. The jobs performed by these
professionals require years of education and training. By their nature, such jobs can be performed
effectively only if the employees are afforded substantial autonomy.

2014年7月9日星期三

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part2
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 2, Conducting the Internal Audit Engagement)
Questions et réponses: 220 Q&As

Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part3
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 3, Business Analysis and Information Technology)
Questions et réponses: 1554 Q&As

Code d'Examen: IIA-CCSA
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certification in Control Self-Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 270 Q&As

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NO.1 Focusing on customers, promoting innovation, learning new philosophies, driving out fear, and
providing extensive training are all elements of a major change in organizations. These elements are
aimed primarily at:
A. Copying leading organizations to better compete with them.
B. Focusing on the total quality of products and services.
C. Being efficient and effective at the same time, in order to indirectly affect profits.
D. Managing costs of products and services better, in order to become the low-cost provider.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
TQM is a comprehensive approach to quality. It treats the pursuit of quality as a basic organizational
function that is as important as production or marketing. TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality in
every aspect of organizational activities through (1) a philosophy of doing it right the first time; (2)
employee training and empowerment; (3) promotion of teamwork; (4) improvement of processes;
and (5) attention to satisfaction of customers, both internal and external. TQM emphasizes the
supplier's relationship with the customer, identifies customer needs, and recognizes that everyone
in a process is at some time a customer or supplier of someone else, either inside or outside of the
organization.

NO.2 Which statement best describes total quality management (TQM)?
A. TQM emphasizes reducing the cost of inspection.
B. TQM emphasizes better statistical quality control techniques.
C. TQM emphasizes doing each job right the first time.
D. TQM emphasizes encouraging cross-functional teamwork.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
TQM establishes quality as an organizational objective and views it as a major component of the
organization's service to its customers. It emphasizes employee training and commitment,
productservice design and production, and customer service. Ordinarily, the quality of a product or
service is as important to customers as cost and timeliness. Superior product quality is not merely
the result of more inspection, better statistical quality control, and cross-functional teamwork.
Manufactures must make fundamental changes in the way they produce products and do each job
right the first time.

NO.3 Which of the following is a characteristic of total quality management (TQM)?
A. Management by objectives.
B. On-the-job training by other workers.
C. Quality by final inspection.
D. Education and self-improvement.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality in every aspect of organizational activities. One of the
means of achieving this is through employee training and empowerment.

NO.4 A company with many branch stores has decided to use its best-performing store as a
benchmark organization for the purpose of analyzing the accuracy and reliability of branch store
financial reporting.
Which one of the following is the most likely measure to be included in a financial benchmark?
A. High turnover of employees.
B. High level of employee participation in setting budgets.
C. High amount of bad debt write-offs.
D. High number of suppliers.
Answer: C

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
Internal benchmarking is the application of best practices in one part of the organization (e.g., a
high-performing branch store) to its other parts (other branches). This process requires, among
other things, use of quantitative and qualitative measures. A key indicator for financial performance
measurement is the amount of bad debt write-offs. A high level of bad debt write-offs could
indicate fraud, which would compromise the accuracy and reliability of financial reports. Bad debt
write-offs may result from recording fictitious sales.

NO.5 The use of teams in total quality management (TQM) is important because:
A. Well-managed teams can be highly creative and are able to address complex problems better
than individuals can.
B. Teams are quicker to make decisions, thereby helping to reduce cycle time.
C. Employee motivation is higher for team members than for individual contributors.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to become
leaner and more profitable.
Answer: A

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen
Explanation:
Teams can use the diverse knowledge and skills of all team members. Employee involvement means
training and empowering employees to harness their creativity for problem solving. Quality control
circles are used to obtain input from employees and to locate the best perspective on problem
solving.

NO.6 Which of the following is not required by ISO 9000 standards?
A. Establishment of a quality management system.
B. Creation of an internal audit system.
C. Consistent high quality products.
D. Onsite inspections by a registrar.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
ISO 9000 is a set of generic standards for establishing and maintaining a quality system within an
entity. The standards provide no basis forjudging the quality of the end product. The marketplace
makes this determination. The objective of ISO 9000 standards is to ensure consistent quality.

NO.7 In which of the following organizational structures does total quality management (TQM) work
best?
A. Hierarchal.
B. Teams of people from the same specialty.
C. Teams of people from different specialties.
D. Specialists working individually.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
TQM advocates replacement of the traditional hierarchal structure with teams of people from
different specialties. This change follows from TQM's emphasis on empowering employees and
teamwork. Employees should (1) have proper training, necessary information, and the best tools;
(2) be fully engaged in the decision process; and (3) receive fair compensation. If such empowered
employees are assembled in teams of individuals with the required skills, TQM theorists believe
they will be more effective than people performing their tasks separately in a rigid structure.

NO.8 Which of the following costs of quality is a failure cost?
A. Systems development costs.
B. Costs of inspecting in-process items.
C. Contract penalty for delivery of nonconforming goods.
D. Costs of quality circles.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Failure costs are incurred after defective output has been removed from production. A contract
penalty for faulty goods is an example of an external failure cost.

2014年2月23日星期日

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CCSA
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certification in Control Self-Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 270 Q&As

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NO.1 In traditional approach, evaluating risks and controls were done by auditors and in control
self-assessment approach it is done by work teams.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 A methodology that can be used by managers and internal auditors to assess the adequacy of
an organization's risk management and control processes is called:
A. Control self-assessment
B. Control certifications
C. Managerial control
D. Risk control
Answer: A

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NO.3 In traditional approach, objectives used were of management's and in control selfassessment
approach it is of work teams'.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 Principles relevant to profession of internal auditing and rules of conduct that describe their
behaviors are the components of:
A. Auditing Reviews
B. Internal Auditing Profession
C. Auditing Standards
D. Institute of Internal Auditors
Answer: D

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NO.5 When internal auditors establishes trust and thus provides the basis for reliance on their
judgment, this refers to:
A. Veracity
B. Authenticity
C. Integrity
D. Accuracy
Answer: C

IIA   certification IIA-CCSA   IIA-CCSA   IIA-CCSA   IIA-CCSA

NO.6 Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal auditing is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add
value and improve an organization's operations.
B. Take guidelines to analyst conflicts of internal auditing.
C. Required orientation and continuing education regarding audits.
D. Assets are safeguards for internal audits.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT the purpose of an organization that uses self-assessment to
have a formal, documented process that allows management and work teams to participate in a
structured manner?
A. Identifying risk factors and significant exposures.
B. Accessing the control processes that do not mitigate or manage those risks.
C. Developing action plans to reduce risks to acceptable levels.
D. Determining the likelihood of, or assisting in, the achievement of business objectives.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructures of an organization are subject to greater
monitoring and continuous improvements due to:
A. Accountability for control
B. Measuring methodology
C. Evaluation methodology
D. Self-assessment methodology
Answer: D

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NO.9 To disclose all material facts known to internal auditors that if not disclosed, may distort the
reporting of activities under review, this one of the rules of:
A. Objectivity
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A

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NO.10 Internal auditors have which following four principles to uphold and apply.
A. Integrity, Objectivity, Control and Confidentiality
B. Integrity, Objectivity, Confidentiality and Competency
C. Reliability, Objectivity, Timeliness and Competency
D. Integrity, Objectivity, Discretion and Expertise
Answer: B

IIA   certification IIA-CCSA   IIA-CCSA   IIA-CCSA

NO.11 Competency refers to:
A. External auditors apply the knowledge, skills and experience needed in the performance of
internal auditing services.
B. Internal auditors apply the knowledge, skills and experience needed in the performance of
internal auditing services.
C. Reduce or prevent manufacturing defects
D. Provide information about the process capability and maturity with standards.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following is NOT the rule of integrity?
A. Perform duty with honesty and responsibility.
B. Observe law and make disclosures expected by law.
C. Knowingly engage in acts that are discreditable to the organization.
D. Respect to and contribute to the legitimate objectives of the organization.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal audit can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself
assessment.
B. controlling can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself assessment.
C. Internal audit can focus on resource and budgetary produced by control-self assessment.
D. Internal audit can focus on better risk assessment produced by control-self assessment.
Answer: A

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NO.14 The purpose of Control self-assessment is:
A. to make analysis through interviews
B. to find report issued by auditors
C. through which internal control effectiveness is examined and assessed
D. to focus on policies and procedures that are strategy compliance
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following is Correct?
A. In traditional approach, reporting was done by work teams and in control selfassessment
approach it is done by auditors.
B. In traditional approach, reporting was done by auditors and in control self-assessment approach
it is done by work teams.
C. In traditional approach, setting business objectives were done by auditors and in control
self-assessment approach it is done by management.
D. In traditional approach, accessing risks were done by auditors and in control selfassessment
approach it is also done by auditors.
Answer: B

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