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Code d'Examen: IREB
Nom d'Examen: ISQI (IREB Certified Professional for Requirements Engineering)
Questions et réponses: 84 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements best characterize the relationship between a requirement engineer
and a stakeholder in the role of the tester.?
A. The requirement engineer delivers input for the work of the stakeholder
B. The output from the requirements engineer is managed by the stakeholder
C. The stakeholder delivers input for the requirements engineer
D. The stakeholder monitors the work of the requirements engineer
E. The work of the requirements engineer is not related to the role of the stakeholder
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are employed as a requirements engineer in a company that develops control software for electric
motors. During your work it becomes increasingly evident that the developers are very well aware of the
necessary requirements. Even through the requirements are next documented in their entirely.
Nevertheless, you decide to document requirements systematically. Which two of the following arguments
justifies this step? (Choose two)
Documenting requirements systematically is important, because . . .
A. Implementation without documented requirements is not possible
B. Non-documented requirements are difficult to negotiate between the stakeholders
C. The coverage of the requirements by means of test cause cannot be checked
D. Documented requirements are also good requirements
Answer: C

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NO.3 In delimiting system and system context, a differentiation is made between the system boundary and
the context boundary. This differentiation is important in order to understand which aspects impact on the
requirements of the system to be deployed and which do not. (Choose two)
A. The context boundary separates the system from the system context
B. The system boundary and the context boundary define the system context
C. The system context includes all aspects that are not relevant to the requirements of the planned
system
D. Only the aspects within the system boundary must be taken into account in order to determine the
requirements of the system to be deployed
E. The selection of the system boundary establishes which aspects are converted by the system to be
deployed which be deployed as scope.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 You are a project manager for a system that your company is creating for the military in the field of
logistics. A requirements engineer has been assigned to your project but does not have all the desirable
skills for this role. In respect to the attributes of the requirements engineer, which of the following
statements implies the greatest risk for the requirements engineering?
A. The requirements engineer is not familiar with the military ranks and so cannot deal adequately with
the hierarchical senilities.
B. The requirements engineer does not have detailed knowledge of the military norms and standards that
should be applied to the system.
C. The requirements engineer has no solid project management training
D. The requirements engineer is introverted and has no knowledge of requirements elicitation and
documentation
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which sentence best characterizes the term stakeholder ?
A. The external actors interacting with a system and technical interfaces to surrounding systems are
designated as stakeholders
B. Stakeholders are persons and organizations affected by the development and the of the system or of
the product
C. Stakeholders are special interest representatives who are responsible for the approval of the first
project phase
D. A stakeholder is responsible for the administration of the software development environment
Answer: B

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Guide de formation plus récente de ISQI CTAL-TM_001

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Code d'Examen: CTAL-TM_001
Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to
provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an
influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.2 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for
the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.4 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test
specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to
be achieved
Answer: D

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NO.6 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical
monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to
see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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NO.7 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area,
testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always
applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support.
Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

ISQI   CTAL-TM_001   certification CTAL-TM_001   certification CTAL-TM_001

NO.9 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on
reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned
scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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Les meilleures ASQ CQA examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CQA
Nom d'Examen: ASQ (Quality Auditor Exam)
Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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NO.1 When lower-tier documents are compared to higher-tier documents before the fieldwork
starts, the
comparison is called a
A. desk audit
B. process audit
C. conformance audit
D. management audit
Answer: A

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NO.2 A root cause of a nonconformance is defined as a problem that
A. is discovered by conducting designed experiments
B. is established through the use of fishbone diagrams
C. must be reviewed by the material review board
D. must be corrected in order to prevent a recurrence
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following conclusions can be made by an auditor who observes that statistical
process control (SPC) charts posted near operator workstations are done correctly and are
regularly completed throughout the plant?
A. Commitment of management to quality is strong
B. Processes are being improved continually
C. Shop floor staff have been fully trained
D. SPC charts are available
Answer: D

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NO.4 An audit trail is necessary in order to
A. schedule and budget for audit assignments
B. show how and when items were reviewed
C. provide management with justification for an audit
D. provide the audit manager with audit results
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following audit strategies is a common technique to assess compliance to a
specific
requirement at all locations where that requirement is applicable?
A. Discovery method
B. Element method
C. Department method
D. Process method
Answer: B

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Le meilleur matériel de formation examen Motorola Solutions MSC-121

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Code d'Examen: MSC-121
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design WLan Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

MSC-121 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/MSC-121.html

NO.1 Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the IEEE 802.11 Open Authentication
procedure?
A. Uses four way frame exchange
B. Is optional before additional authentication
C. May occur after the association
D. Must occur before additional authentication
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions examen   MSC-121   MSC-121

NO.2 You are a network design engineer and are assigned to provide an enterprise S02.1X/EAP solution to
secure your company's IEEE 802.11n WLAN. What networking protocol/service that provides centralized
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for computers to connect and use
wireless network resources can be implemented?
A. Secure Shell (SSH)
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Virtual Private Networking (VPN)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Passphrase
E. Remote Authentication DialinUser Service (RADIUS)
Answer: E

Motorola Solutions   MSC-121   certification MSC-121

NO.3 You have been assigned to design a new IEEE wireless LAN that will require six access points for both
coverage and capacity. Based on expected client device usage, it has been determined the
2.4 GHz ISM band will be the most appropriate for this deployment. Without taking any specific local
regulatory domain into consideration, how many channels are available for selection in the
2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 11
D. 14
E. 23
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following duplexing methods is used by the radios in Motorola's WLAN products?
A. Half-duplex
B. Full-duplex
C. Simplex
D. Half-duplex Tx / Full-duplex Rx
E. Full-duplex Tx / Ha If-duplex Rx
Answer: A

Motorola Solutions   MSC-121   MSC-121   certification MSC-121

NO.5 Which of the following situations would force a wireless client to renew its IP address?
A. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to the same VLAN
B. Roaming between controllers supporting the same VLANs
C. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to different VLANs
D. All of the above would force a client to renew its IP address
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are responsible for designing an 802.11n controller based wireless LAN for your organization
using independent access point technology, The Information Technology team has decided the wireless
LAN controllers should be installed on the core layer at the headquarters office location configured for
centralized forwarding. Which statements are true concerns with respect to this type of installation (select
TWO)?
A. S02.11n independent access points require the controller be installed at the network access layer only.
B. The WLAN controller at the core layer may be a bottleneck and limit scalability if not properly planned.
C. Network core layer deployments should always use 10 Gigabit (or faster) Ethernet components.
D. With centralized forwarding enabled all wireless traffic is tunneled to the WLAN controller that is
connected to the network core layer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which of the following must occur prior to a WLAN client device being assigned a TCP/IP address
through DHCP?
A. Successful 802.11 roaming
B. Successful 802.11 association
C. Successful 802.11 authentication
D. Successful 802.11 probe response
Answer: B

certification Motorola Solutions   MSC-121   certification MSC-121

NO.8 You are assigned the task of evaluating a wireless network. While using a layer 2 wireless LAN
analysis capture tool you notice support of a minimum rate of 6 Mbps. What IEEE 802.11 standard or
amendment to the standard operating in the U-NII band is in use on the company's WLAN (select TWO)?
A. 802.11
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11a
Answer: C,E

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NO.9 The IEEE 802.lln amendment to the standard addresses several PHY layer enhancements. One of
these enhancements is "Channel Bonding" allowing for 40 MHz wide channels. Without taking any
specific local regulatory domain into consideration, what is the maximum number of non-overlapping 40
MHz wide channels that can exist in the 2.4 GHz ISM band.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 11
F. 20
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are a computer network consultant at a small medical office and responsible for the design and
deployment of the IEEE 802.11b/g WLAN. Some of the users of the WLAN are complaining about the
performance of the network. You use a layer 2 WLAN analyzer to view the frames traversing the wireless
medium to see if you can determine the problem. After careful examination of the data recorded you
notice a significant amount of CTS-to-Self frames. What is a potential reason for the high number of these
frame types?
A. The access points are in OFDM only mode
B. The access points support Quality of Service
C. The access points are in HR/DSSS only mode
D. The access points are in ERP protection mode
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions   MSC-121   MSC-121   MSC-121 examen   MSC-121

NO.11 XYZ Company is deploying a companywide Motorola Solutions wireless infrastructure. The following
list is a breakdown of XYZ Company facilities with the number of access points required for each location:
-Corporate HQ: 36 AP -Distribution Centers (3): 48 AP each -Warehouses (5): 34, 64, 28, 12, 20 AP
respectively -Satellite offices (25): 1-2 AP each. -Stores (1100): 3-4 AP each.
XYZ is looking for the most cost effective solution, while still being able to manage and configure the
system centrally. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. AP7131s at each location.
B. NX9000 at Corporate HQ and AP7131's at all locations.
C. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
D. 4 RFS7000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with 24 or more AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
E. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS7000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP7131 at
locations with up to 24 AP's.
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   MSC-121 examen   MSC-121   MSC-121

NO.12 Network Layer TCP/IP packets that are prepared to be sent across the 802.11 wireless medium are
commonly known as which of the following?
A. MAC service data unit
B. MAC protocol data unit
C. LLC sub-layer data unit
D. MAC service switch unit
E. PHY layer service data unit
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following terms refers to the strength of an emitted RF signal measured at its strongest
point?
A. EIRP (Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power)
B. 1FZ (First Fresnel Zone)
C. Azimuth
D. dBi
E. IR (Intentional Radiator)
Answer: A

Motorola Solutions examen   MSC-121 examen   MSC-121   MSC-121

NO.14 In radio frequency transmission the term Modulation Coding Scheme (MCS) is defined by which of the
following?
A. The combination of digital modulation method and a forward error correction mechanism.
B. A set of AES/CCMP cipher modes which assure integrity of an OFDM transmission.
C. The use of an encryption algorithm to securely code a modulated signal before transmission.
D. A multiplexing technique that uses orthogonal codes in place of X.509 digital certificates for message
validation.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are designing a new 802.11 installation that will be built on an IEEE 802.3 10/100/1000
BaseT-backbone infrastructure. All IEEE 802.11n access points and VoIP phones will be IEEE
802.3 Power over Ethernet (PoE) powered devices. The 802.11n access points will utilize dual band 3X3
MIMO and require 802.3at PoE. Which is a true statement regarding a WLAN deployment of this nature?
A. This installation can only use endpoint Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE) devices.
B. Only IEEE 802.3af PoE devices can operate on a Gigabit network infrastructure.
C. VoIP phones and access points cannot be located on the same access layer PoE switches.
D. An accurate power sourcing equipment (PSE) power budget must be performed.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: S90-04A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Project Delivery & Methodology)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 An SOA project carried out with a top-down approach can contain phases that require the completion
of the following tasks:
A. development of services
B. design of services
C. analysis of services
D. testing of services
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements makes sense?
A. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to start building
services before completing our top-down analysis.
B. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to complete our
service inventory blueprint before delivering our services.
C. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to bypass up-front
analysis altogether so that we could build our services in the shortest possible timeframe.
D. None of these statements make sense.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Bottom-up delivery is generally focused on fulfilling ____________ requirements while top-down
delivery is generally focused on fulfilling ____________ requirements.
A. tactical (short-term), tactical (short-term)
B. strategic (long-term), strategic (long-term)
C. tactical (short-term), strategic (long-term)
D. strategic (long-term), tactical (short-term)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following tends to be the most expensive and time consuming project delivery strategy?
A. bottom-up
B. top-down
C. meet-in-the-middle
D. round-about
Answer: C

SOA Certified Professional   S90-04A   S90-04A   S90-04A   S90-04A

NO.5 The primary deliverable of the service inventory analysis is a ____________ of the service inventory.
A. blueprint
B. contract
C. composition architecture
D. legend
Answer: A

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NO.6 The Claims Solution project is responsible for delivering a service composition comprised of seven
services. The project team is following a meet-in-the-middle approach whereby a service analyst and two
service architects will continue carrying out a top-down analysis effort after the initial set of services is
designed and developed. What will happen after the top-down analysis completes and the final service
candidates are noticeably different from the services that have already been delivered?
A. The previously delivered services remain in use until they can no longer fulfill their functional
requirements, at which point they are retired and replaced with new services based on the final service
candidates.
B. The previously delivered services are later redesigned and redeveloped as per the final service
candidates in order to bring the services in the Claims Solution in alignment with the target service
inventory blueprint.
C. The previously delivered services are not changed and the final service candidates serve as a constant
reminder as to how they should have been designed.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements makes sense?
A. The bottom-up approach is tactical (short-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
B. The top-down approach is tactical (short-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
C. The bottom-up approach is strategic (long-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort
be carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
D. The top-down approach is strategic (long-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Two service delivery projects are being carried out concurrently. Each project has its own project team.
Even though both projects are delivering services for the same service inventory, each project team is
given complete independence as to how services are designed and developed and what design
standards are to be used. Which of the following statements describes a likely consequence of this
approach.?
A. The service inventory will be comprised of services that comply to different design standards and these
services will therefore not be compatible or interoperable.
B. Services with redundant and overlapping logic may be delivered because no effort was made to
coordinate the delivery of the services between the two projects.
C. One project team may decide to follow a top-down delivery approach, whereas the other project team
may follow a bottom-up delivery approach.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.9 SOA projects introduce new considerations that tend to augment the traditional project lifecycle as
follows:
A. they tend to introduce the need for more up-front analysis effort
B. they tend to require closer collaboration between business and technology experts
C. they tend to require a careful prioritization of tactical (short-term) and strategic (long-term)
requirements
D. they tend to introduce new project roles
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is false?
A. With the bottom-up approach, services are built on an "as need" basis and are modeled to encapsulate
application logic to best serve the immediate requirements of the solution.
B. The bottom-up approach is often motivated by integration needs that may require establishing
point-to-point integration channels between legacy systems.
C. The bottom-up approach is focused primarily on maximizing service reuse. Therefore, special attention
is paid to the documentation of service profile information that is used to create complete service catalog
entries.
D. The bottom-up approach can result in the creation of hybrid services that contain a mix of logic from
different sources.
Answer: C

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NO.11 A service candidate is:
A. a conceptual service
B. a proposed service that may not yet physically exist
C. a modeled service produced via a service modeling process
D. a modeled service that initially acts as the starting point for the physical design of the service
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is true?
A. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach allows an on-going top-down analysis to occur while
services are designed and delivered. The only requirement is that delivered services eventually be
updated to be kept in alignment with the results of the top-down analysis.
B. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach is essentially based on the bottom-up approach in that it
allows services to be delivered without up-front analysis. The only difference is that the
meet-in-the-middle approach advocates the use of object-orientation principles instead of
service-orientation principles.
C. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach is essentially based on the top-down approach in that it
allows services to be delivered after the completion of the top-down analysis. The only difference is that
the meet-in-the-middle approach advocates the use of people that act as mediators who ensure that
business analysts and technology architects can collaborate harmoniously.
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: A

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NO.13 The Inventory Management System project is delivering a modest solution comprised of three services.
The project team is following a bottom-up approach whereby service developers are building the services
to fulfill tactical (short-term) requirements. Although not everyone agrees with this approach, it does
actually directly support the following service-oriented computing goal:
A. Increased Intrinsic Interoperability
B. Increased Business and Technology Alignment
C. Increased Federation
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.14 In a service-oriented analysis process, business and technology experts are encouraged to
collaborate hands-on so that they can jointly model service candidates.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.15 Top-down approaches typically ____________ the long-term governance burden of services.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. eliminate
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: S90-18A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA Security)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 A task service needs to access three entity services as part of a service composition. The task service
needs to authenticate itself every time it accesses one of the three entity services. Because the task
service must authenticate itself three times to complete its task, the current service composition design is
considered inefficient. How can it be improved while continuing to fulfill the authentication requirements?
A. Increase the network bandwidth between the task service and the entity services.
B. Use a single sign-on mechanism.
C. Remove the authentication requirements within the service composition, thereby reducing the
message size and making communication faster.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a hashing algorithm?
A. MD5
B. X.509
C. SHA-1
D. SHA-256
Answer: B

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NO.3 The owner of a service inventory reports that the public key related to a certain private key has been
lost. There is a concern that this was the result of a security breach. A security specialist recommends
contacting the certificate authority in order to add the corresponding certificate to the certificate authority's
Certificate Revocation List (CRL). However, the certificate authority responds by indicating that this is not
necessary. Which of the following answers explains this response?
A. The certificate authority needs to issue a new public key instead.
B. The certificate authority requires that the existing public key needs to be changed within the existing
certificate.
C. Public keys cannot get lost because they are alreadypublicallyavailable.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.4 The application of the Brokered Authentication pattern is best suited for a scenario whereby a service
consumer does not need to re-authenticate itself with multiple services.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 The requirement to defer security related state data at runtime relates directly to the application of which
service-orientation principle?
A. Service Loose Coupling
B. Service Autonomy
C. Service Abstraction
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.6 The use of XML-Encryption supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle because the
actual message remains hidden from the attacker.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 The SAML and WS-Security industry standards can be applied to the same service composition
architecture.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 Digital signatures use encryption and hashing.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 Service A and Service B belong to Organization A and Service C belongs to Organization B. Service A
sends confidential messages to Service B, which forwards these messages to Service
C. The message sent to Service C is intercepted by a load balancing service agent that determines which
instance of Service C to route the message to. This entire message path needs to be encrypted in order
to ensure message confidentiality from when the message is first sent by Service A until it is received by
an instance of Service C. Organization A doesn't trust any intermediaries that may exist in between
Service B and Service C and also doesn't want to share any keys with Organization B. Furthermore, there
is a requirement to minimize any adverse effects on performance. Which of the following approaches
fulfills these requirements?
A. Use message-layer security by adding symmetric encryption between Services A, B and C. This
way,message content is not available to any intermediaries between Services B and C.
B. Because Service A and Service B exist within the same organizational boundary, use transport-layer
security to provide message confidentiality. Use message-layer security via asymmetric encryption
between Service B and Service C.
C. Use transport-layer security between Service B and Service C and use message-layer security via
asymmetric encryptionbetween Service A and Service B. This way. all the services are secured while at
the same time minimizing the performance degradation between Service B and Service C.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.10 The application of the Data Origin Authentication pattern only provides message integrity.?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.11 Service A sends a message to Service B which reads the values in the message header to determine
whether to forward the message to Service C or Service D. Because of recent attacks on Services C and
D, it has been decided to protect the body content of messages using some form of encryption. However,
certain restrictions within the design of Service B will not permit it to be changed to support the encryption
and decryption of messages. Only Services A, C and D can support message encryption and decryption.
Which of the following approaches fulfill these security requirements without changing the role of Service
B?
A. Transport-layer security is implemented between all services.
B. Message-layer security is implemented between all services.
C. Service B is removed. Instead, the routing logic is added to Service A.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.12 As a requirement for accessing Service B, Service A needs to encrypt its request message. Service B
decrypts the message, makes some changes, encrypts the message, and then forwards it to Service C.
However, the message does not make it to Service C. Instead, a runtime error is raised by a service agent
that does not support encryption. This service agent only requires access to the message header in order
to route the message to the appropriate instance of Service C. It is therefore decided that the header part
of the message will not be encrypted. Which of the following can be used to address this requirement?
A. certificate authority
B. SAML
C. non-repudiation
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.13 The manager of an IT department decides to split up an existing enterprise service inventory into two
domain service inventories. The public key used previously in the enterprise service inventory can
continue to be used in one of the domain service inventories.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.14 Service A relies on a shared identity store. Service B has its own identity store. Service C also has its
own identity store, but must also access the shared identity store used by Service A. Which service has
the least reduction in autonomy as a result of its relationship with identity store mechanism(s)?
A. Service A
B. Service B
C. Service C
D. The autonomy of all services is affected equally
Answer: B

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NO.15 A service contract includes a security policy that exposes specific details of the service's underlying
implementation. This is an example of the application of which service-orientation principle?
A. Service Abstraction
B. Service Loose Coupling
C. Standardized Service Contract
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 312-49
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator )
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 If you come across a sheepdip machine at your client site, what would you infer?
A. A sheepdip coordinates several honeypots
B. A sheepdip computer is another name for a honeypot
C. A sheepdip computer is used only for virus-checking.
D. A sheepdip computer defers a denial of service attack
Answer: C

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NO.2 Before you are called to testify as an expert, what must an attorney do first?
A. engage in damage control
B. prove that the tools you used to conduct your examination are perfect
C. read your curriculum vitae to the jury
D. qualify you as an expert witness
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-49   312-49   312-49

NO.3 When examining the log files from a Windows IIS Web Server, how often is a new log file
created?
A. the same log is used at all times
B. a new log file is created everyday
C. a new log file is created each week
D. a new log is created each time the Web Server is started
Answer: A

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NO.4 A(n) _____________________ is one that's performed by a computer program rather than the
attacker manually performing the steps in the attack sequence.
A. blackout attack
B. automated attack
C. distributed attack
D. central processing attack
Answer: B

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NO.5 What file structure database would you expect to find on floppy disks?
A. NTFS
B. FAT32
C. FAT16
D. FAT12
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   312-49   312-49   312-49   312-49

NO.6 What does the superblock in Linux define?
A. file system names
B. available space
C. location of the first inode
D. disk geometry
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.7 In a computer forensics investigation, what describes the route that evidence takes from the time
you find it until the case is closed or goes to court?
A. rules of evidence
B. law of probability
C. chain of custody
D. policy of separation
Answer: C

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NO.8 When an investigator contacts by telephone the domain administrator or controller listed by a
whois lookup to request all e-mails sent and received for a user account be preserved, what
U.S.C. statute authorizes this phone call and obligates the ISP to preserve e-mail records?
A. Title 18, Section 1030
B. Title 18, Section 2703(d)
C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90
D. Title 18, Section 2703(f)
Answer: D

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NO.9 A honey pot deployed with the IP 172.16.1.108 was compromised by an attacker . Given below is
an excerpt from a Snort binary capture of the attack. Decipher the activity carried out by the
attacker by studying the log. Please note that you are required to infer only what is explicit in the
excerpt. (Note: The student is being tested on concepts learnt during passive OS fingerprinting,
basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dump.)
03/15-20:21:24.107053 211.185.125.124:3500 -> 172.16.1.108:111
TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29726 IpLen:20 DgmLen:52 DF
***A**** Seq: 0x9B6338C5 Ack: 0x5820ADD0 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32
TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23678634 2878772
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=
03/15-20:21:24.452051 211.185.125.124:789 -> 172.16.1.103:111
UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29733 IpLen:20 DgmLen:84
Len: 64
01 0A 8A 0A 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 A0 ................
00 00 00 02 00 00 00 03 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ................
00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 01 86 B8 00 00 00 01 ................
00 00 00 11 00 00 00 00 ........
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=
03/15-20:21:24.730436 211.185.125.124:790 -> 172.16.1.103:32773
UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29781 IpLen:20 DgmLen:1104
Len: 1084
47 F7 9F 63 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 B8 G..c............
00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 20 ...............
3A B1 5E E5 00 00 00 09 6C 6F 63 61 6C 68 6F 73 :.