2013年7月1日星期一

Les meilleures EXIN EX0-102 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: EX0-102

Nom d'Examen: EXIN (Microsoft Operations Framework,MOFF)

Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

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NO.2 What do the steps to setting policy not include?
A. reviewing legal compliance
B. review and maintain policies
C. publish policies
D. validate policies
Answer: A

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NO.3 What does the focus of the Change and Configuration SMF in the Plan phase include?
A. Architectural change
B. Corporate strategy transfer to IT strategy
C. Legal and compliance representation
D. Process and procedure
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement of the IT service lifecycle is not correct?
A. It isolates risk to the Operate phase.
B. It addresses the design and delivery of the IT service.
C. It describes the life of an IT service.
D. It represents planning and optimizing the IT service to align with the business strategy.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Performing IT accounting is part of which SMF?
A. Business/IT Alignment SMF
B. Financial Management SMF
C. Policy Management SMF
D. Reliability Management SMF
Answer: B

EXIN   EX0-102   EX0-102

NO.6 Is the Portfolio Management Review focused on understanding the state of supply and demand for IT
services and directing investments to make sure that the business value of IT is realized?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which SMF provides root cause analysis?
A. Incident Management
B. Problem Management
C. Stabilizing
D. Testing
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which is a goal of MOF?
A. ensure that business oversight governs IT service lifecycle activity to promote business/IT alignment
B. ensure that the investment in IT delivers expected business value at an acceptable level of risk
C. provide guidance to Finance and Accounting groups to successfully audit services delivered by IT
D. provide a common reference standard for any enterprise offering IT services to internal and external
customers
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is a goal of the Plan phase?
A. Delivered Services are adaptable to the changing needs of the business
B. Packaged product deployments are deployed in line with business requirements
C. To ensure that deployed services operated in line with the agreed-to SLA targets
D. To establish an integrated approach to IT Service Management activities
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the IT service lifecycle composed of?
A. Build phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase, Manage layer
B. Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deploy phase, Operate phase
C. Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase
D. Plan phase, Develop phase, Operate phase, Manage phase
Answer: C

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NO.11 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Define service requirements
B. Monitoring and improving plans
C. Planning
D. all of the above
Answer: D

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NO.12 What Management Review (MR) determines whether IT is working on the right things and clarifies the
business value of proposed projects?
A. Policy and Control
B. Portfolio
C. Release Readiness
D. Service Alignment
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which statement is true about the SMFs in the Operate Phase?
A. All SMFs feed the Deliver Phase.
B. The Customer Service SMF focuses on how to resolve complex problems.
C. The SMFs are dependant on each other.
D. The SMFs are sequential.
Answer: C

EXIN   EX0-102   EX0-102   EX0-102 examen

NO.14 What does MOF organize?
A. Activities and processes into SMF, which are grouped together in phases that mirror the IT service
lifecycle.
B. Activities and processes into phases, which are grouped into SMFs that mirror the IT service lifecycle.
C. Activities and processes into SMFs, which are directed by Management Reviews that mirror the IT
service lifecycle.
D. Activities and processes into phases, which are directed by Management Reviews that mirror the IT
service lifecycle.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What do the goals of the Reliability SMF include?
A. Service maintainability is aligned to the business in a cost-effective manner.
B. Service Continuity is aligned to the business in a cost-effective manner.
Answer: B

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L'avènement de la certification EXIN pratique d'examen EX0-106 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: EX0-106

Nom d'Examen: EXIN (SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense)

Questions et réponses: 232 Q&As

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NO.1 If you wish to create a new rule in ISA Server 2006 so that all file attachments with an .exe extension
that come through the firewall are dropped, what would you select in the Toolbox to create this rule?
A. Content Type
B. User Group
C. Destination Set
D. Protocol Set
E. Extension Type
Answer: A

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NO.2 As you increase the layers of security in your organization, you must watch the network behavior
closely. How can a firewall have a negative impact on the performance of your network?
A. It can authorize sensitive information from the wrong host
B. It can block needed traffic
C. It can decrypt secure communications that were supposed to get past the firewall encrypted
D. It can restrict bandwidth based on QoS
E. It can filter packets that contain virus signatures
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current
configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any
network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C

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NO.4 The CEO of your company has just issued a statement that the network must be more secure right
away. You have discussed several options with the Chief Security Officer and the Chief Technology Officer.
The results of your discussion are to implement IPSec. What are the two prime functions of IPSec that
you can let the CEO know will be addressed with the implementation?
A. Ensure data corruptibility
B. Ensure data integrity
C. Ensure data availability
D. Ensure data security
E. Ensure data deliverability
Answer: BD

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NO.5 As per the specifications of RFC 1191: Path MTU Discovery, MTUs have been defined so that
transmitted datagrams will not unnecessarily become fragmented when traveling across different types of
physical media. You are going to run several packet captures to be sure there are no out of spec packets
on your network. According to these specifications what are the absolute minimum and maximum MTUs?
A. 1492 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
B. 68 Bytes and 65535 Bytes respectively
C. 512 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
D. 512 bits and 1500 bits respectively
E. 512 bits per second and 1500 bits per second respectively
Answer: B

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NO.6 What step in the process of Intrusion Detection as shown in the exhibit would determine if given alerts
were part of a bigger intrusion, or would help discover infrequent attacks?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 10
E. 4
Answer: C

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NO.7 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

EXIN   EX0-106   EX0-106   EX0-106 examen   EX0-106

NO.8 You have been given the task of building the new wireless networks for your office, and you need to
verify that your equipment will not interfere with other wireless equipment frequencies. What wireless
standard allows for up to 11 Mbps transmission rates and operates in the 2.4GHz range?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11e
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11i
E. 802.11g
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

EXIN   EX0-106   EX0-106 examen

NO.10 Your network traffic has increased substantially over the last year, and you are looking into your
caching options for frequently visited websites. What are the two types of caching that ISA Server 2006
supports?
A. Reverse caching
B. Forward caching
C. Inverse caching
D. Recursive caching
E. Real-time caching
Answer: AB

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NO.11 You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there
are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware
failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E

EXIN   EX0-106   EX0-106   EX0-106

NO.12 At a policy meeting you have been given the task of creating the firewall policy. What are the two basic
positions you can take when creating the policy?
A. To deny all traffic and permit only that which is required.
B. To permit only IP traffic and filter TCP traffic
C. To permit only TCP traffic and filter IP traffic
D. To permit all traffic and deny that which is required.
E. To include your internal IP address as blocked from incoming to prevent spoofing.
Answer: AD

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NO.13 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are configuring a Cisco Router, and are creating Access Control Lists as part of the security of the
network. When creating Wildcard Masks, which of the following rules apply?
A. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
B. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
C. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
D. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
E. To create a Wildcard Mask, always take the inverse of the Subnet Mask.
Answer: AD

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NO.15 In the image, there are two nodes communicating directly, without an access point. In the packet on
the right side of the image, the Address 1 field is blank. If this packet is going to the other computer, what
is the value that must be filled in this blank address field?
A. 2345
B. 1234
C. ABCD
D. <null>
E. ABCD-1234
Answer: B

EXIN   EX0-106   EX0-106   EX0-106

NO.16 For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of
the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside
the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B

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NO.17 The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that
establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500
series running IOS 11.2.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7
will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D's Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes
7 and Router D's Int E0.
Answer: D

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NO.18 When performing wireless network traffic analysis, what is the type and subtype for an 802.11
authentication packet?
A. Type AA Subtype AAAA
B. Type 00 Subtype 1011
C. Type 0A Subtype 0A0A
D. Type 11 Subtype 0000
E. Type A0 Subtype A1A0
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are planning on implementing a token-based authentication system in your network. The network
currently is spread out over four floors of your building. There are plans to add three branch offices.
During your research you are analyzing the different types of systems. Which of the following are the two
common systems token-based authentication uses?
A. Challenge/Response
B. Random-code
C. Time-based
D. Challenge/Handshake
E. Password-Synch
Answer: AC

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NO.20 During a training presentation, that you are delivering, you are asked how wireless networks function,
compared to the OSI Model. What two layers of the OSI Model are addressed by the 802.11 standards?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Session
Answer: AB

EXIN   EX0-106   EX0-106   EX0-106

NO.21 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.22 You are working on your companys IPTables Firewall; you wish to create a rule to address traffic using
ports 1024 through 2048. Which of the following would you use during the creation of your rule?
A. p:1024 P:2048
B. P:1024 p2048
C. p=1024-2048
D. 1024-2048
E. 1024:2048
Answer: E

EXIN examen   EX0-106 examen   EX0-106

NO.23 You are configuring your new IDS machine, where you have recently installed Snort. While you are
working with this machine, you wish to create some basic rules to test the ability to log traffic as you desire.
Which of the following Snort rules will log any tcp traffic from any host other than 172.16.40.50 using any
port, to any host in the 10.0.10.0/24 network using any port?
A. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
B. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
C. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
D. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
E. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <- 10.0.10.0/24 any
Answer: B

EXIN   EX0-106   EX0-106 examen   EX0-106

NO.24 You are considering your options for a new firewall deployment. At which three layers of the OSI
model does a stateful packet filtering firewall operate?
A. Presentation
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Application
E. Transport
Answer: BCE

EXIN   EX0-106   certification EX0-106

NO.25 You have configured Snort to run on your SuSe Linux machine, and you are currently making the
configuration changes to your MySQL database. What is the result of running the following command at
the mysql prompt?
source /usr/share/doc/packages/snort/schemas/create_mysql;
A. This command tells MySQL to connect to the /usr directory when source files are required for Snort
rules.
B. This command tells MySQL that the source files for Snort are located in the /usr directory.
C. This command tells MySQL where to place the Snort capture files in the database.
D. This command tells MySQL to populate the database using the fields provided by Snort.
E. This command tells MySQL where to find the source data for connecting to Snort.
Answer: D

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NO.26 You are configuring a new IDS, running Snort, in your network. To better configure Snort, you are
studying the configuration file. Which four of the following are the primary parts of the Snort configuration
file?
A. Postprocessors
B. Variables
C. Preprocessors
D. Output Plug-ins
E. Rulesets
Answer: BCDE

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NO.27 During your review of the logs of your Cisco router, you see the following line. What is the meaning of
this line?
%SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty1 (172.16.10.1)
A. A normal, but noteworthy event
B. An informative message
C. A warning condition has occurred
D. A debugging message
E. An error condition has occurred
Answer: A

EXIN   certification EX0-106   certification EX0-106

NO.28 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are
examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined
together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.29 You are monitoring the network traffic on your Frame-Relay Internet connection. You notice a large
amount of unauthorized traffic on port 21. You examine the packets, and notice there are no files being
transferred. Traffic on what other port must be examined to view any file contents?
A. 20
B. 119
C. 23
D. 80
E. 2021
Answer: A

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NO.30 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server
2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: MOFF

Nom d'Examen: EXIN (MOFF Microsoft Operations Framework 4.0 Foundation)

Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 The Change and Configuration Management SMF has a set of processes assigned to it. Which process
is the first in order?
A. Approve the change
B. Baseline the configuration
C. Classify the Change
D. Initiate the Change
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

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NO.3 Performing IT accounting is part of which SMF?
A. Business/IT Alignment SMF
B. Financial Management SMF
C. Policy Management SMF
D. Reliability Management SMF
Answer: B

EXIN examen   MOFF   MOFF   MOFF   MOFF examen

NO.4 Which role type investigates and resolves an underlying problem?
A. Customer Service Representative
B. Incident Resolver
C. Problem Analyst
D. Problem Manager
Answer: C

EXIN   MOFF   MOFF   MOFF

NO.5 Does the concept ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its constraints Does the
concept ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its constraints.?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

certification EXIN   MOFF   MOFF

NO.6 Which Management Review evaluates IT staff performance and operational efficiency?
A. Operational Health review
B. Policy & Control review
C. Release Readiness review
D. Service Alignment review
Answer: A

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NO.7 Does the Team SMF ensure that someone is ultimately accountable for the work required in the Plan
Phase?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a process within the Service Monitoring and Control SMF?
A. Continuous monitoring
B. Purge event logs
C. Service monitoring requirements
D. Static monitoring definition
Answer: A

EXIN   MOFF   MOFF

NO.9 Which SMF has 'Filter the problem' as a process step?
A. Customer Service
B. Service Monitoring and Control
C. Operations
D. Problem Management
Answer: D

EXIN examen   MOFF   MOFF   MOFF   MOFF examen

NO.10 What is compliance?
A. An application of risk management that ensures IT's conformance with company-specific policies,
governmental regulations and laws
B. A design that involves understanding the business requirements and defining the features that users
need to do their job
C. A plan that aligns an organization objectives into a cohesive approach to deliverservices that support
business strategyA plan that aligns an organization? objectives into a cohesive approach to deliver
services that support business strategy
D. A state that occurs when the technical and business goals of the IT organization match the goals of the
overall business
Answer: A

EXIN   MOFF   MOFF

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Code d'Examen: MOFF-EN

Nom d'Examen: EXIN (Microsoft Operations Framework Foundation)

Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a process within the Service Monitoring and Control SMF?
A. Continuous monitoring
B. Purge event logs
C. Service monitoring requirements
D. Static monitoring definition
Answer: A

EXIN   MOFF-EN   MOFF-EN   MOFF-EN

NO.2 Which SMF has 'Filter the problem' as a process step?
A. Customer Service
B. Service Monitoring and Control
C. Operations
D. Problem Management
Answer: D

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NO.3 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

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NO.4 Does the Team SMF ensure that someone is ultimately accountable for the work required in
the Plan Phase?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.5 Does the concept ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its
constraints?Does the concept ?ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its
constraints?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 2B0-202

Nom d'Examen: Enterasys Networks (ES NetSight Atlas)

Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 The Firmware Upgrade Wizard allows you to enter a reset delay time for devices that
support timed reset. How can you reset devices that do not support timed reset?
A. You cannot reset devices that do not support timed reset.
B. After selecting the devices in the table, click Start to initiate manual resets.
C. It is necessary to walk to the device to initiate a reset.
D. After closing the Firmware Upgrade Wizard, you open the Manual Device Reset
Wizard.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Device Manager provides all of the following, EXCEPT
A. Graphic representation of a device
B. Configuration file upload/download
C. System level configuration
D. Broadcast Suppression configuration
Answer: C

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NO.3 With SNMPv3, the message is encrypted
A. to prevent disclosure of sensitive information while en route
B. to make sure the user has permission to access the device
C. to verify the message was not modified en route
D. to read or to modify subsets of the target data
E. Both A and C
Answer: A

Enterasys Networks   certification 2B0-202   2B0-202   2B0-202   2B0-202

NO.4 What service must be running to save a configuration?
A. TFTP
B. BOOTP
C. SNMP trapd
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.5 The Goto symbol is used as a navigational tool to jump to another map.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Enterasys Networks examen   2B0-202   2B0-202   2B0-202

NO.6 Which RMON groups are accessible from the Device Manager?
A. Alarm and Event
B. Host and Matrix
C. Statistics and History
D. Filter and Capture
Answer: C

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NO.7 What benefits are gained with SNMPv3?
A. Better error codes
B. Encrypted messages
C. Fast table retrieval
D. All of the above
Answer: D

certification Enterasys Networks   certification 2B0-202   2B0-202   2B0-202   2B0-202 examen

NO.8 Which of the following configuration files can you view while comparing archives in
Inventory Manager?
A. All archived configuration files
B. Only files in which a difference in configurations is found
C. All archived database files
D. A and C
Answer: B

Enterasys Networks examen   2B0-202   2B0-202 examen   2B0-202   2B0-202   2B0-202

NO.9 Which of the following actions can Atlas Console initiate when certain alarms, events or
traps occur on the network?
A. Send an e-mail notification and then shut down Atlas Console
B. Send an e-mail notification or run a program
C. Write the event log to an HTML file for web-based viewing
D. Run a program or shut down Atlas Console
E. A and C only
Answer: B

Enterasys Networks examen   2B0-202   2B0-202 examen

NO.10 In the context of Policy Manager, a Role is a
A. Feature set that is assigned after authentication exchange and the port is available
B. Feature used to assign access control and/or class of service to network traffic based
on its OSI layer
C. Feature used to enforce the default role on a port
D. Feature used to combine classification rules to implement permission and denial to
network resources
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-520

Nom d'Examen: EMC (Calriion solutions specialist exam)

Questions et réponses: 520 Q&As

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NO.1 During normal MirrorView/S operations, Navisphere Manager permits host access to how many
secondary images?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.4
Answer:A

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NO.2 What is the process for flagging source LUNs?
A.Snapshots are created, changing the LUN's state.
B.Via GUI interface or CLI the state change bit is switched.
C.The PSM LUN is set to "source."
D.Via Navisphere Analyzer the FLARE LUN is changed to a PSM LUN.
Answer:A

EMC   E20-520   certification E20-520   E20-520 examen

NO.3 What makes sizing of the reserved LUN pool a non-trivial task?
A.Reserved LUNs are assigned to specific source LUNs when the CLARiiON is laid out.
B.Source LUNs can be different sizes and only write to LUNs of the same size.
C.Reserved LUN pools may be different sizes and allocation to source LUNs is based on the next
available reserved LUN.
D.There are 512 reserved LUNs in all CLARiiON models while there may be many more source LUNs.
Answer:C

EMC   E20-520 examen   E20-520   E20-520   E20-520

NO.4 In a MirrorView/S environment, a primary image is owned by SPA on the primary array. Which SP must
own the secondary image on the secondary array within the same mirror set?
A.Either SP on the secondary array
B.SPB on the secondary array
C.SPA on the secondary array
D.It is marked as a private LUN on the secondary array
Answer:C

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NO.5 If a customer wants to present a secondary image LUN of a MirrorView/S mirror set to a host, what
must they do first?
A.The primary image must be removed from the mirror set.
B.The secondary image must be placed in the host storage group.
C.The secondary image must be removed from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
D.The secondary image must be fractured from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which best describes the MirrorView/A replication process?
A.A write is received, tracked in the SAN Copy delta set mechanism, transmitted to the secondary array.
B.A write is received, tracked in the fracture log, transmitted to the secondary array.
C.A write is received, tracked in the SnapView private LUN, transmitted to the secondary array.
D.A write is received, tracked in the write intent log, transmitted to the secondary array.
Answer:A

EMC   E20-520 examen   certification E20-520

NO.7 What CLARiiON is needed to meet a customer's requirement for their MirrorView/S environment that
will have 50 consistency groups?
A.CX4, FLARE 22
B.CX4, FLARE 28
C.CX3, FLARE 26
D.CX3, FLARE 28
Answer:B

EMC examen   E20-520   E20-520   E20-520   E20-520

NO.8 A customer intends to use clones in their environment. They are concerned about the usability of clone
data.They ask about the result of removing a clone from a clone group.Which statement describes the
result of that operation?
A.Clone LUN may be used for reverse-synchronization operations.
B.Clone LUN may be used for synchronization operations.
C.Data on the clone LUN is flagged in the clone private LUN.
D.Data on the clone LUN is not affected and may be used by a host.
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which statement applies when the Protected Restore option is enabled on a clone?
A.Once the reverse synchronization is complete, the clone is fractured.
B.All SnapView sessions on the source LUN must be stopped.
C.A clone cannot be marked "dirty" before starting a reverse synchronization.
D.When reverse synchronization is in process, no writes are allowed to the source LUN or clone.
Answer:A

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NO.10 A customer starts four SnapView sessions on a source LUN. The sessions are scheduled to start at
8:00 A.M., 12:00 P.M., 4:00 P.M., and 8:00 P.M. At 5:15 P.M. the reserved LUN pool runs out of
space.What will happen next?
A.Most recently allocated reserved LUN will be released.
B.Reserved LUN allocated first will be released.
C.Space used by all sessions on the source LUN will be released.
D.Space used by the session that performed the most recent write will be released.
Answer:D

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NO.11 What happens when a snapshot is deactivated?
A.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the primary host.
B.The SnapView session ends.
C.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the secondary host.
D.All metadata is removed from the SP.
Answer:C

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NO.12 A storage administrator wants to use a point-in-time copy of a production LUN for testing and possibly
keep any changed data from that copy. The administrator's goal is to minimize the performance impact on
the production LUN as well as use the point-in-time copy for restoring their data.What is the extent size for
this LUN?
A.Use a clone and promote it as needed
B.Use a clone and reverse-synchronize as needed
C.Use a snapshot of a clone and roll back as needed
D.Use a snapshot and deactivate command to make changes permanent on the production LUN
Answer:B

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NO.13 Which statement describes the operation of the reserved LUN pool?
A.LUN IDs of reserved LUNs in the reserved LUN pool can only be between 2048 and 4096.
B.All reserved LUNs must be the same size, on FC disks, and have the same RAID type.
C.Separate reserved LUN pools are required for SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
D.Reserved LUN pool is shared between SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
Answer:D

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NO.14 Should a SnapView session stop automatically, what will happen to the running sessions?
A.All sessions pointing to the clone will fail over to SP B and continue to write.
B.All sessions running on the source LUN will be terminated.
C.Host buffers will be flushed and sessions restarted.
D.All memory mapping entries will be saved to the COFW log.
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which device is enabled by default when creating a mirror set in a MirrorView/S environment on a
CX4-120 with FLARE 28?
A.Write intent log
B.Reserved LUN pool
C.Secondary Image
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:B

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NO.16 A storage administrator tries to create a clone group on a CLARiiON CX4 and receives an error
message that stops the clone group from being created.What could be a possible cause?
A.MirrorView has not been configured.
B.Population latency has not been configured.
C.No CPLs have been allocated.
D.No reserved LUNs have been allocated.
Answer:C

EMC   E20-520   E20-520   E20-520   E20-520

NO.17 The primary image of a MirrorView/S mirror set has trespassed from SPA to SPB on the primary
array.Which SP now owns the secondary image?
A.ALUA determines ownership
B.SPA on the secondary array
C.Neither SPA or SPB
D.SPB on the secondary array
Answer:D

EMC   E20-520   E20-520

NO.18 What does the fracture log allow?
A.Incremental resynchronization of data
B.Creation of markers for each modified track
C.Capture of persistency errors from the source to target
D.Connectivity failures from both directions
Answer:A

EMC   E20-520   certification E20-520   certification E20-520

NO.19 Which object would maintain the changes to a source LUN in the event a MirrorView/S configuration
suffered a link outage followed by an SP trespass?
A.Metavolume
B.Fracture log
C.Write intent log
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:C

EMC   certification E20-520   E20-520

NO.20 The number and size of SnapView pointers have reached memory allocation. What will take place to
adjust to this situation?
A.Pointers will be paged to the reserved LUN as required.
B.128 KB memory chunks will be added until the memory usage has been satisfied.
C.Pointers will be paged to and from the reserved LUN as required in 512 KB chunks.
D.An additional reserve LUN will be required.
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: E20-517

Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)

Questions et réponses: 179 Q&As

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NO.1 You need to perform an SRDF fallback operation and must ensure the integrity of the data on the R2
volume which step must be taken.?
A. Suspend the RDF link
B. Unmount the tile system
C. Remove entries horn the file system table
D. Disable journaling on the file system
Answer: D

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NO.2 A storage administrator wants to map some Symmetrix devices to an FA port for use by the Sales group
and finds that someone placed reservations on the devices for a project that no longer needs them. What
should theStorage administrator does to use those devices?
A. Use the password that was used at the time of creation to release the reservations
B. Use symconfigure to release the reservation
C. Map the devices from a host that has Symmetrix Access Control administrator privileges.
D. Use symconfigure with the force option to map the devices
Answer: B

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NO.3 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing an SRDF split operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Write Disabled; R2 Read/Write
C. R1 Read/Write; R2 Read/Write
D. R1 Read/Write; R2 Write Disabled
Answer: C

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NO.5 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host.
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices.
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host.
Answer: B

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