2014年3月31日星期一

Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur SAP C_TSCM42_66

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Code d'Examen: C_TSCM42_66
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which objects can affect the calculation of capacity requirements for an operation?(Choose
three)
A. Standard values (routing)
B. In-house production time (material master)
C. Transport time (routing)
D. Formulas (work center)
E. Operation control key (routing)
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 Which activity can trigger an automatic availability check for the components of a production
order?
A. Material staging
B. Order rescheduling
C. Order release
D. Goods receipt for a missing part
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following master data can be used with process orders?(Choose three)
A. Serial numbers
B. Master recipes
C. Resources
D. Production/resource tools
E. Production versions
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.4 Which types of objects can be changed with Engineering Change Management (ECM)?(Choose
three)
A. Task list
B. Work center
C. Production version
D. Bill of material
E. Material master
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 Which of the following scheduling types can only be used in capacity planning?
A. Midpoint
B. Forward
C. Only capacity requirements
D. Backward
Answer: A

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NO.6 In the Customizing for requirements planning, a project team notices that the alternatives P1,
P2, P3 and P4 are also delivered as standard in addition to MRP type PD. The number in each of
these alternatives represents a firming type.
What does a firming type define?(Choose two)
A. Handling existing procurement proposals outside the planning time fence.
B. Handling existing procurement proposals within a planning time fence.
C. Handling new requirements within the planning time fence.
D. Handling new procurement proposals that need to be created due to new requirements within
the planning time fence.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 You want to use the function "Read PP master data" in the production order.
However, while calling the function you receive an error message.
What could be the reason?
A. The material availability check has been performed.
B. Goods movements have been posted.
C. The production order has been released.
D. Order papers have been printed.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You want to use the different options for planning in SAP ECC.
What is the correct sequence of the planning procedures?
A. Sales and operations planning -> Demand management -> Long-term planning -> Material
requirements planning -> Capacity planning
B. Demand management -> Sales and operations planning -> Capacity planning -> Long-term
planning -> Material requirements planning
C. Material requirements planning -> Demand management -> Sales and operations planning ->
Long-term planning -> Capacity planning
D. Long-term planning -> Sales and operations planning -> Demand management -> Material
requirements planning -> Capacity planning
Answer: A

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NO.9 The final assembly of a finished product should only be triggered when a customer order
arrives.
Which planning strategy for the finished product do you use?
A. Planning with make-to-stock (strategy 10)
B. Planning at the assembly level (strategy 70)
C. Planning without final assembly (strategy 50)
D. Planning with final assembly (strategy 40)
Answer: C

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NO.10 You want to enhance the system statuses of a production order with user statuses.
How do you do this?
A. Define the user statuses in the order type-dependent parameters.
B. Define a status profile in Customizing and assign it to the production scheduling profile.
C. Define a status profile in Customizing and assign it to the order type.
D. Define the user statuses in the Customizing table of the system statuses.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C-ISR-60
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Retail with SAP ERP 6.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one of the following price determination elements must be configured so that certain
condition lines of a purchase order will appear on the print output?
A. Access sequence
B. Condition type
C. Calculation schema
D. Schema group
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following are the effects of a goods issue posting for an outbound delivery in SAP
Retail? (Choose three)
A. The stock quantities are updated in the article master.
B. The value change is updated in the stock accounts in Financial Accounting (FI).
C. The status of the outbound delivery is updated in the document flow.
D. The pick quantity in the transfer order is updated.
E. The stock type Blocked stock changes.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which of the following are the IT scenarios powered by SAP NetWeaver Master Data
Management (MDM)?
A. SRM Master Data Management, SRM Master Data Consolidation, SRM Master Data
Harmonization
B. Central Master Data Management, Master Data Consolidation, Master Data Harmonization
C. ERP Master Data Management, ERP Master Data Consolidation, ERP Master Data Harmonization
D. Central Customer Master Data Integration, Customer Rich Product-Content Management, Master
Data Harmonization
Answer: B

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NO.4 You create a sales order for the wholesale distribution chain. In the pricing analysis you notice
that the customer discount you have just created has not been included.
Which of the following settings made in sales price determination in SAP Retail might be the cause
of this? (Choose two)
A. The determined pricing procedure does not contain the new condition type Customer discount.
B. The condition record for your new customer discount was created for the wrong distribution
chain.
C. A validity date has been defined in the access sequence that is assigned to the condition type
Customer discount.
D. The condition record for the customer discount is set as: cannot be changed manually.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Where is the supplementary calculation schema assigned?
A. Condition type
B. Calculation schema
C. Access sequence
D. Schema group
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following functions are offered by replenishment planning in SAP Retail? (Choose
three)
A. Calculating requirements for merchandise category value-only articles.
B. Determining requirements for stores based on the stock situation.
C. Considering different customer stock types.
D. Analyzing customers' sales data and stock data.
E. Generating follow-on documents.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.7 For which of the following key figures can you maintain plan data in a purchasing list in SAP
Retail? (Choose three)
A. Stock transfer
B. Initial buy fix
C. Initial buy variable
D. Putaway
E. Allocation table
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 Which of the following functions does the purchasing list offer? (Choose three)
A. Selecting characteristic values for a purchasing list item.
B. Entering planned quantities for seasonal articles per assortment.
C. Planning the number of styles of seasonal articles per vendor.
D. Planning new articles that do not yet have an article master record.
E. Creating prepacks and displays.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 Which of the following needs to be considered when using the replenishment based inventory
management procedure?
A. Only the unrestricted-use stock type is monitored.
B. Documents are created for all goods movements.
C. Different stock types are monitored.
D. Documents are created for goods receipts only.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Where in the Merchandise Category Hierarchy would you find a Reference Article?
A. Any Merchandise Category Hierarchy Level
B. Merchandise Category
C. Merchandise Category Hierarchy Top Level
D. Merchandise Category Hierarchy Level and Merchandise Category
Answer: B

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NO.1 When associating network interfaces to a physical interface on the Net-Net 4000, the ___________
fields must contain the same unique ID.
A.sub-port-id
B.name
C.unique-id
D.identifier
Answer:B

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NO.2 In an H.323 network, a __________ provides translation services and communication between
dissimilar networks.
A.gatekeeper
B.gateway
C.multipoint control unit
D.codec
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which two of the following statements regarding SIP processing are FALSE?
A.An initial INVITE will contain a From header tag and a To header tag as a globally unique identifier for
the dialog.
B.To avoid retransmissions, User Agents must forward received 100 Trying messages to their next hop.
C.Calls Per Second are typically measured using a 7-10 message SIP call flow including call set-up and
tear down.
D.The combination of the To tag, From tag, and Call-ID completely defines a peer-to-peer SIP relationship
and is referred to as a dialog.
Answer:A B

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NO.4 The default baud rate for console connections to the Net-Net 4000 is ____________.
A.115200
B.2400
C.9600
D.56600
Answer:A

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NO.5 High availability (HA) nodes identify one another by their __________ names.
A.Identifier
B.Host
C.mib-system-name
D.target
Answer:D

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NO.6 To view an existing multiple instance element configuration you can go to the correct branch of the
configuration tree and _______________.
A.select the element and then issue the show command
B.enter the name of the element and then issue the show command
C.type show and select from the displayed list
D.type show
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which one of the following statements about H.323 networks is FALSE?
A.The collection of all terminals, gateways, and MCU managed by a single gatekeeper is known as an
Autonomous System (AS).
B.Gateways are not mandatory in an H.323 network.
C.Gatekeepers are not mandatory in an H.323 network.
D.Gateways translate call set-up messages and convert media formats.
Answer:A

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NO.8 When two associated H323 stacks in different realms have the gatekeeper parameter defined, which
one of the following statements is TRUE?
A.The Net-Net 4000 will proxy LRQ and LCF messages from one gatekeeper to the other and the TCP
connection for H.225.0 will be established afterwards.
B.The Net-Net 4000 will respond locally to the LRQ with a LCF, and upon receiving the SETUP on the
ingress leg, will open the TCP connection on the egress leg to send the SETUP.
C.It is not possible to have two associated H323 stacks when both have gatekeepers defined.
D.Registrations will be forwarded from one Gatekeeper to the other using unique RRQ messages.
Answer:A

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NO.9 The Net-Net 4000 is the source and destination for all signaling messages and media streams coming
into and leaving the provider's network. Which two of the following SIP functions does it provide?
A.edge proxy
B.registrar
C.Back to Back User Agent
D.media gateway
Answer:A C

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NO.10 In a(n) __________ exchange, a Master Slave Determination message is an example of a type of
message that might be exchanged during the media setup portion of the call.
A.RAS
B.ISDN
C.H.245
D.H.225
Answer:C

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NO.11 In a high availability (HA) scenario, if peers boot simultaneously and their health scores are equivalent,
which node automatically assumes the role of Active?
A.The node that had the role of active last.
B.The node that had the role of standby last.
C.The node with the highest Wancom IP address.
D.The node with the lowest Wancom IP address.
Answer:D

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NO.12 If upon examination of two configuration files you notice that the version number of the permanently
saved configuration differs from the version number of the running configuration, it means that
__________.
A.the saved configuration file has been edited, but the done command was not issued
B.the saved configuration file has been copied from flash into SDRAM using the save-config command
C.the saved configuration file has been saved into flash, but the activate-config command has not been
issued
D.the saved configuration file was copied from flash into SDRAM using the activate-config command
Answer:C

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NO.13 Best current practice for the initial turn-up of a secondary node in a highly available (HA) pair calls for
the acquire-config command targeting the ____________________interface on the primary node.
A.Wancom0
B.Wancom1
C.Wancom2
D.Wancom3
Answer:A

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NO.14 Which two of the following statements about SIP response code handling on the Net-Net 4000 are
TRUE?
A.The Net-Net 4000 will originate a 403 Forbidden response when bandwidth allocated to a realm has
been exhausted.
B.The Net-Net 4000 cannot originate 3xx class redirect responses.
C.The Net-Net 4000 egress realm selection may be affected by received third party 3xx class redirect
responses
D.The Net-Net 4000 can transmit a different SIP response code than it received.
Answer:C D

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NO.15 A steering pool defines ________________.
A.a range of IP addresses used to route media flows as they egress the box
B.a range of IP addresses and a pool of ports Net-Net 4000 will use to declare itself as the destination for
all subsequent media flows in a dialog
C.an IP address and range of ports the Net-Net 4000 will use to declare itself as the destination for media
flows in a session
D.an IP address and port the Net-Net 4000 uses for steering media to the external media server
Answer:C

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Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Implementation Exam (beta))
Questions et réponses: 237 Q&As

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NO.1 Which parameter heading is correct to use in the opmon.cfg file for Avaya Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.DIALBACK
B.DIALIN
C.SOFTDIAL
D.DEDHEAD
Answer:C

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NO.2 Which Avaya software is used to provide consolidated reporting with Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X and
other Avaya communication solutions?
A.CMS
B.WebLM
C.Avaya IQ
D.Analyst
Answer:C

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NO.3 Where are greetings, such as the pre-recorded messages an agent hears when they log in or the
messages played to a customer during a virtual job, stored in a Proactive Contact with CTI solution?
A.Avaya CM
B.AES Server
C.Proactive Contact CPU
D.Proactive Contact Digital Switch
Answer:A

Avaya   133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4

NO.4 Which voicemsg.cfg setup is correct to use on an Avaya Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.23:pf_msg1:41031:Female:Outbound:Voice:pf_msg1
B.14:41039:mwait1:Male:Outbound:Voice:mwait1
C.41017:19:infwait3:Female:Inbound:Voice:41017
D.189:virt1m:Male:Virtual:Voice:41026
Answer:A

certification Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4

NO.5 Given the following command: icall %12 %13 1 16144691010 Which function in swit is performed by
this command?
A.It tests incoming channel 12 by placing a call to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 13.
B.It provides a monitoring channel 12 to listen to channel 13 for a call placed to 16144691010.
C.It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 13 to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 12.
D.It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 12 to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 13.
Answer:D

Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4 examen

NO.6 To track information being sent between the agent interface and the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X
server, which file should be accessed on the client side to verify what is happening?
A.Moagent32.log
B.Moagent32.dll
C.PCagent32.log
D..log
Answer:A

Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen   certification 133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4

NO.7 Which Proactive Contact component allows clients residing off the dialer to obtain events and real-time
data from the dialer?
A.Event Service
B.STATSPUMP
C.Historical Data Service Component (HDSC)
D.Dialer Command and Control Service (DCCS)
Answer:A

certification Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen

NO.8 Which Avaya software is used to communicate between Communication Manager and Avaya
Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.Avaya CT
B.AES
C.CMS
D.MAPD
Answer:B

Avaya examen   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4

NO.9 A supervisor reports that the data in Internet Monitor is only updating every two minutes. The
supervisor requests the update time be changed to every 30 seconds. Which configuration field in
master.cfg must be changed?
A.IMONDISPLAY
B.SURFREFRESH
C.IMONREFRESH
D.AUTORELPOLLTIME
Answer:C

Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.10 Which configuration file on the CPU contains digital switch port addressing information?
A.locale.cfg
B.opmon.cfg
C.dgswitch.cfg
D.phonefmt.cfg
Answer:C

certification Avaya   certification 133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4

NO.11 Which Avaya CM circuit pack is necessary if the customer expects to do predictive dialing on Proactive
Contact with CTI?
A.TN744 Call classifier
B.TN2602 Media interface
C.TN799 C-LAN
D.TN464 DS1 Interface
Answer:A

Avaya   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4

NO.12 Which parameter in master.cfg is required to ensure correct agent capacity on a Proactive Contact
system?
A.PORTS
B.LINEASSIGN
C.QUOTA
D.MAXHIDSLOTS
Answer:D

certification Avaya   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4

NO.13 Which Proactive Contact 4.X hardware component in a hard dialer setup performs dialing functions
and call progress analysis, plays messages, and bridges agents to called parties?
A.UPS
B.CPU
C.digital switch
D.access server
Answer:C

Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen

NO.14 You are working with a third-party to integrate a call recording utility with Proactive Contact. The
technician for the third-party is not able to see events from Proactive Contact. Which command would you
type on the Proactive Contact command line to see all statistics from Event Services?
A.enclient -S $NS
B.enclient -A
C.enserver -a
D.enserver -S $NS
Answer:A

Avaya   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen

NO.15 Which two commands are used to configure the cti_passwd.cfg file for an Avaya Proactive Contact with
CTI with Agent Blending? (Choose two.)
A.cti_passwd
B.cti_passwd
C.cti_passwd -b
D.cti_passwd
Answer:C D

Avaya   certification 133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.16 Under which two sections in Editor do you set up Record Specific Messaging? (Choose two.)
A.Contact Management
B.Messages and Scripts
C.Jobs
D.Calling Lists
Answer:B D

Avaya examen   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.17 How does Proactive Contact move digitized messages from the CPU to the Large Port Voice Card
(LPVC)?
A.Remote Copy (RCP)
B.Network File System (NFS)
C.File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
D.Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Answer:B

Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4

NO.18 The local CA certificate for Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X agent is stored in which location?
A.password file
B.Microsoft Certificate Store
C.registry
D.My Documents
Answer:B

certification Avaya   certification 133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4

NO.19 Where is the location of the local policy files on the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X server?
A./opt/avaya/pds/config
B./opt/avaya/pds/openssl
C./opt/avaya/pds/etc
D./etc
Answer:B

certification Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.20 You are configuring a Proactive Contact 4.X solution for your customer. They do not use the same result
codes that the dialer uses. They use a short four-character description. Which Supervisor function should
you use to ensure that your customer's host will understand the Avaya completion codes?
A.translate
B.merge
C.fill
D.format
Answer:A

Avaya examen   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-100
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Sales Certification Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 49 Q&As

132-S-100 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/132-S-100.html

NO.1 .Which are the three basic functions of the Communication Manager Software?
A. PBX functionality,Contact Center functionality, Mobility Server
B. PBX functionality, Mobility Server, IPSoftphone
C. Mobility Server,Contact Center functionality, DoS Protection Server
D. Contact Center functionality, PBX functionality, SIP Enablement
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-100 examen   132-S-100   132-S-100

NO.2 .Avaya will have direct resources assigned for primary coverage for which two of the following
account types? (Choose two.)
A. Non Global / US Named
B. US Named
C. Global
D. All account types
Answer: B,C

Avaya examen   132-S-100   132-S-100 examen   132-S-100 examen

NO.3 .Which enterprise is defined by having over 1000 users, mulitple locations, are often multinational,
and have complex business models?
A. Very-small-sized
B. Small-sized
C. Mid-sized
D. Large-sized
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-100   132-S-100 examen   132-S-100 examen

NO.4 .In the Contact Center portfolio, how does Avaya solve this customer problem: Inability to make
good decisions on behalf of customers and to provide personalized customer service?
A. Access to actionable customer data through a single database and reporting platform
B. Ability to extend applications outward through the enterprise
C. Access convenient communications capabilities to find and reach people more effectively
D. Best practice use of technology
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 132-S-100   132-S-100 examen

NO.5 .Which is NOT a common business problem addressable by Avaya's IPT solutions?
A. Inability to get the appropriate parties together to make decision
B. Inability to communicate during a major business interruption
C. Multiple disparate systemsthat are expensive to maintain
D. Disconnected branch offices
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-100   132-S-100 examen   132-S-100

NO.6 .A business process consists of a set of steps that an organization typically uses to execute daily
business and is _____.
A. Measurable using Key Process Indicators
B. Measurable using Key Performance Indicators
C. Measurable using Key Process Instances
D. Measurable using Key Primary Indicators
Answer: A

Avaya examen   132-S-100 examen   132-S-100 examen   132-S-100

NO.7 .Partners selling to Global Accounts at the Avaya Direct Account Team's invitation must sell which
of the following?
A. Avaya Services only
B. Avaya products only
C. Avaya content for both products and services where Avaya has an applicable offer
D. Any products or services they choose
Answer: C

certification Avaya   132-S-100   132-S-100   132-S-100   132-S-100 examen   certification 132-S-100

NO.8 .SIP is a key enabler of intelligent communications because it allows for monitoring of _____.
A. Presence
B. Metrics
C. Call volume
D. Process
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-100   132-S-100

NO.9 .A key capability of Avaya's IP Telephony solutions is to extend customer announcements,
voicemail greetings, and other applications from the core to the branches, enabling _____.
A. A higher TCO
B. Branch office managers to maintain and administer their own communications systems
C. Consistent user experiences
D. Each user to have a different, customized experience
Answer: C

Avaya   132-S-100 examen   132-S-100   certification 132-S-100

NO.10 .Who determines the maintenance renewal strategy when a Partner has previously sold a
maintenance agreement to a non Global / US Named Account? (Choose two.)
A. The Avaya Direct team owns the maintenance renewal strategy.
B. The Avaya Telesales team owns the maintenance renewal strategy.
C. The end-user customer.
D. The Partner owns the maintenance renewal strategy, which may include a Channel Service
Agreement, Partner Support Service / Joint Service Delivery, or Wholesale Maintenance.
Answer: C,D

Avaya   132-S-100 examen   132-S-100   132-S-100   certification 132-S-100

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Code d'Examen: 133-S-713
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Implementation Exam (beta))
Questions et réponses: 237 Q&As

133-S-713 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/133-S-713.html

NO.1 .You are configuring a Proactive Contact 4.X solution for your customer. They do not use the same
result codes that the dialer uses. They use a short four-character description. Which Supervisor
function should you use to ensure that your customer's host will understand the Avaya completion
codes?
A. Translate
B. Merge
C. Fill
D. Format
Answer: A

certification Avaya   133-S-713 examen   133-S-713   certification 133-S-713   certification 133-S-713

NO.2 .Which voicemsg.cfg setup is correct to use on an Avaya Proactive Contact with CTI?
A. 23:pf_msg1:41031:Female:Outbound:Voice:pf_msg1
B. 14:41039:mwait1:Male:Outbound:Voice:mwait1
C. 41017:19:infwait3:Female:Inbound:Voice:41017
D. 189:virt1m:Male:Virtual:Voice:41026
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 133-S-713   133-S-713 examen

NO.3 To track information being sent between the agent interface and the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X
server, which file should be accessed on the client side to verify what is happening?
A. Moagent32.log
B. Moagent32.dll
C. PCagent32.log
D. <agentname>.log
Answer: A

Avaya   133-S-713 examen   certification 133-S-713   133-S-713

NO.4 .A supervisor reports that the data in Internet Monitor is only updating every two minutes. The
supervisor requests the update time be changed to every 30 seconds. Which configuration field in
master.cfg must be changed?
A. IMONDISPLAY
B. SURFREFRESH
C. IMONREFRESH
D. AUTORELPOLLTIME
Answer: C

Avaya   133-S-713   133-S-713 examen   133-S-713   133-S-713

NO.5 .Which file can prevent a record from being called due to legal calling time limitations?
A. locale.cfg
B. opmon.cfg
C. timezone.cfg
D. phonefmt.cfg
Answer: C

Avaya   133-S-713   133-S-713   certification 133-S-713

NO.6 .Which menu in the digital switch is used to refresh the NFS mount?
A. Host Configuration
B. Network Configuration
C. Peripheral Configuration
D. File System Configuration
Answer: B

Avaya   133-S-713   certification 133-S-713

NO.7 .When installing the Proactive Contact Supervisor suite, which application needs to be started first
to configure the connection to the dialer?
A. Editor
B. Monitor
C. Analyst
D. Health Manager
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 133-S-713   certification 133-S-713   133-S-713

NO.8 .Given the following command: icall %12 %13 1 16144691010 Which function in swit is performed
by this command?
A. It tests incoming channel 12 by placing a call to 16144691010 usingoutpulse rule 13.
B. It provides a monitoring channel 12 to listen to channel 13 for a call placed to 16144691010.
C. It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 13 to 16144691010 usingoutpulse rule 12.
D. It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 12 to 16144691010 usingoutpulse rule 13.
Answer: D

Avaya   133-S-713 examen   133-S-713 examen

NO.9 .Which configuration file on the CPU contains digital switch port addressing information?
A. locale.cfg
B. opmon.cfg
C. dgswitch.cfg
D. phonefmt.cfg
Answer: C

Avaya examen   certification 133-S-713   133-S-713

NO.10 .Which two commands are used to configure the cti_passwd.cfg file for an Avaya Proactive Contact
with CTI with Agent Blending? (Choose two.)
A. cti_passwd
B. cti_passwd
C. cti_passwd -b
D. cti_passwd
Answer: C,D

Avaya examen   133-S-713   133-S-713 examen   certification 133-S-713

NO.11 .What is the default method of file transfer for Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X?
A. ftp
B. sftp
C. ZMODEM
D. ssh
Answer: B

Avaya examen   133-S-713   133-S-713 examen   133-S-713

NO.12 .You are working with a third-party to integrate a call recording utility with Proactive Contact. The
technician for the third-party is not able to see events from Proactive Contact. Which command
would you type on the Proactive Contact command line to see all statistics from Event Services?
A. enclient -S $NS
B. enclient -A
C. enserver -a
D. enserver -S $NS
Answer: A

Avaya   133-S-713   certification 133-S-713

NO.13 .Where is the location of the local policy files on the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X server?
A. /opt/avaya/pds/config
B. /opt/avaya/pds/openssl
C. /opt/avaya/pds/etc
D. /etc
Answer: B

Avaya   133-S-713 examen   133-S-713   133-S-713   133-S-713   133-S-713

NO.14 .The local CA certificate for Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X agent is stored in which location?
A. password file
B. Microsoft Certificate Store
C. registry
D. My Documents
Answer: B

Avaya   certification 133-S-713   133-S-713 examen   133-S-713   133-S-713 examen

NO.15 .Which important function should a supervisor perform before running jobs for the day?
A. Perform a backup of the system.
B. Verify that downloads were received and processed.
C. Run reports on the previous day's calling.
D. Restart the Proactive Contact application.
Answer: B

certification Avaya   certification 133-S-713   certification 133-S-713

NO.16 Which Avaya software is used to provide consolidated reporting with Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X
and other Avaya communication solutions?
A. CMS
B. WebLM
C. Avaya IQ
D. Analyst
Answer: C

certification Avaya   certification 133-S-713   133-S-713   certification 133-S-713

NO.17 .What happens to database information on secondary dialers in a POD if the primary dialer is
down?
A. All database information is lost until the primary dialer is restarted.
B. Data is still available to all the non-primary dialers in the pod as long as the network is still up.
C. Each secondary dialer stores its own data and then redistributes it after the primary dialer is
restarted.
D. Supervisors must switch to the Character-User Interface (CUI) and run a script through the
System Administrator menu to reactivate the database.
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 133-S-713   certification 133-S-713   133-S-713 examen   133-S-713   certification 133-S-713

NO.18 .Which Avaya software is used to communicate between Communication Manager and Avaya
Proactive Contact with CTI?
A. Avaya CT
B. AES
C. CMS
D. MAPD
Answer: B

Avaya examen   133-S-713 examen   133-S-713 examen   133-S-713

NO.19 .Under which two sections in Editor do you set up Record Specific Messaging? (Choose two.)
A. Contact Management
B. Messages and Scripts
C. Jobs
D. Calling Lists
Answer: B,D

Avaya examen   133-S-713   certification 133-S-713   133-S-713 examen

NO.20 Which Proactive Contact component allows clients residing off the dialer to obtain events and real-
time data from the dialer?
A. Event Service
B. STATSPUMP
C. Historical Data Service Component (HDSC)
D. Dialer Command and Control Service (DCCS)
Answer: A

certification Avaya   133-S-713   133-S-713

NO.21 .Which directory contains the file with the format layout of a calling list as it would be coming from
the host raw file on a Proactive Contact 4.X system?
A. /opt/avaya/pds/tape
B. /opt/avaya/pds/lists/list#.app
C. /opt/avaya/pds/lists
D. /opt/avaya/pds/tape/list#.app
Answer: B

Avaya examen   certification 133-S-713   certification 133-S-713   133-S-713   133-S-713 examen

NO.22 Which Avaya CM circuit pack is necessary if the customer expects to do predictive dialing on
Proactive Contact with CTI?
A. TN744 Call classifier
B. TN2602 Media interface
C. TN799 C-LAN
D. TN464 DS1 Interface
Answer: A

Avaya examen   133-S-713   133-S-713 examen   133-S-713

NO.23 .Where are greetings, such as the pre-recorded messages an agent hears when they log in or the
messages played to a customer during a virtual job, stored in a Proactive Contact with CTI
solution?
A. Avaya CM
B. AES Server
C. Proactive Contact CPU
D. Proactive Contact Digital Switch
Answer: A

Avaya   133-S-713   133-S-713

NO.24 .When configuring Avaya CM to work with Proactive Contact with CTI, what must be activated on
Avaya CM to allow for communication of agent changes on the PBX?
A. Status agent
B. Agent states
C. Agent API
D. DLG Service
Answer: B

Avaya   133-S-713   133-S-713 examen   133-S-713 examen   certification 133-S-713

NO.25 .How does Proactive Contact move digitized messages from the CPU to the Large Port Voice Card
(LPVC)?
A. Remote Copy (RCP)
B. Network File System (NFS)
C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Answer: B

Avaya   133-S-713   133-S-713   133-S-713   133-S-713   133-S-713 examen

NO.26 .Which parameter in master.cfg is required to ensure correct agent capacity on a Proactive Contact
system?
A. PORTS
B. LINEASSIGN
C. QUOTA
D. MAXHIDSLOTS
Answer: D

Avaya   133-S-713 examen   certification 133-S-713

NO.27 .Which HP processor is currently supported with Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X?
A. Proliant DL385 G2
B. B2600
C. C8000
D. CX2600
Answer: A

certification Avaya   133-S-713 examen   133-S-713 examen   certification 133-S-713   133-S-713

NO.28 .Which Proactive Contact 4.X hardware component in a hard dialer setup performs dialing
functions and call progress analysis, plays messages, and bridges agents to called parties?
A. UPS
B. CPU
C. Digital switch
D. Access server
Answer: C

Avaya   133-S-713   certification 133-S-713   133-S-713

NO.29 .Which parameter heading is correct to use in the opmon.cfg file for Avaya Proactive Contact with
CTI?
A. DIALBACK
B. DIALIN
C. SOFTDIAL
D. DEDHEAD
Answer: C

Avaya   133-S-713 examen   133-S-713   133-S-713 examen   certification 133-S-713

NO.30 Once you log into Proactive Contact Agent, what must you do to actually call customers in a job?
A. Select the Job menu and Join item.
B. Select the Work menu and Place Managed Call item.
C. Select the Settings menu and Change Agent Type item.
D. Select the Telephone menu and Take CallOff Hold item.
Answer: A

certification Avaya   133-S-713   certification 133-S-713   133-S-713   133-S-713

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Code d'Examen: 6401.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two e-mail protocols are used by VoiceMail Pro to perform voicemail to e-mail? (Choose two.)
A. POP 3
B. SMTP
C. MAPI
D. IMAP
Answer: B,C

Avaya   6401.1 examen   certification 6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.2 When using Small Community Networking which two features require the Small Community Advanced
License to function? (Choose two.)
A. Hot Desking
B. Hot Desking across the SCN
C. playing queued announcements
D. Break Out dialing
Answer: B,D

certification Avaya   6401.1   6401.1

NO.3 A user (ext. 199) reports that their IMS client displays an error message when attempting to ring a
phone. What are three reasons that would prevent the IMS program from calling the phone? (Choose
three.)
A. The user profile in Manager has "199" entered as the user name.
B. The phone is set for "Do Not Disturb".
C. The user's "Multi Line Option" is set to "Answer Pre-select".
D. The user mailbox is set to "Blank" under Outlook Tools/Integrated Messaging.
E. The user's profile has "System Phone" is set to "On".
Answer: A,B,D

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1 examen   6401.1

NO.4 What line type supports the IP Office R 4.2 mobile call control functionality?
A. IP DECT Line
B. SIP (RFC2833)
C. IP Line (H.323)
D. Analogue Trunk
Answer: B

Avaya examen   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1 examen

NO.5 A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a menu
in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN. Where in the
setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A. on the General tab in the menu action
B. on the General tab for each transfer action
C. on the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D. in the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer: B

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1 examen   certification 6401.1

NO.6 When tracing a system with the System Monitor program you notice that the Roll Over Log button is
grayed out. What is causing this?
A. You have not set your log preferences.
B. You have a firewall in place.
C. You are monitoring the wrong system.
D. You have paused the screen logging, and are no longer gathering data.
Answer: A

certification Avaya   certification 6401.1   6401.1 examen   6401.1 examen   certification 6401.1

NO.7 A remote user wants to gain access to the network when using the RAS server.
Under which two conditions would you create an IP route.? (Choose two.)
A. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a DHCP address that is on a different
subnet
B. when the user is on the same subnet as the IP Office
C. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a static IP address that is on a different
subnet
D. when the IP Office's DHCP mode is set to Server or Dial In and the PC connection method is set to
obtain an IP Address Automatically
Answer: A,C

Avaya examen   6401.1   6401.1 examen   6401.1 examen

NO.8 When using Voice Conference Notification in the Conference Center Software, which three options
does the participant have when they are called? (Choose three.)
A. Wait
B. Accept
C. Decline
D. Join later
E. Participant is unavailable
Answer: B,C,E

Avaya examen   6401.1 examen   6401.1 examen   6401.1 examen

NO.9 An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls.
What are three possible reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B. The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C. The ring volume is too low to hear.
D. The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E. The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer: B,C,E

Avaya   6401.1 examen   6401.1

NO.10 A customer has two IP Office systems connected using Small Community Networking with centralized
voicemail. When calling from one system to another, calls intermittently get one-way audio. Which two are
necessary to begin troubleshooting this issue? (Choose two.)
A. System Status Application
B. Sniffer trace
C. IP Office Monitor trace information
D. Voicemail console trace
Answer: A,C

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.11 IP Office has a feature, "Conference Meet Me" which allows users to join or start a specific numbered
conference.
Which IP Office Platform does NOT support "Conference Meet Me"?
A. IP Office 401ng
B. IP Office 500 Professional
C. IP Office 403
D. IP Office 500 Standard
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 6401.1   6401.1

NO.12 Which two are used to turn on Small Community Networking within the main IP Office 500? (Choose
two.)
A. RAS
B. FastStart
C. Voice Networking
D. Professional License Enabled
Answer: C,D

certification Avaya   6401.1 examen   6401.1   6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.13 A customer is receiving calls to a hunt group and the callers are reporting that they are being forced to
wait much longer than VoiceMail Pro reported to them during the queued message. What is a possible
cause for this?
A. The hunt group has a priority set to 1.
B. The hunt group has a priority set to 3.
C. There are two routes going to the hunt group. Each has different priorities set.
D. Users in the hunt group have inconsistent priority settings. The users with a priority set to 3 are always
busy.
Answer: C

Avaya examen   6401.1   certification 6401.1   6401.1 examen

NO.14 A customer calls and informs you that every time they call voicemail they get a busy signal. The
customer sends you the trace shown below:
0.s PRN: Monitor Started IP=192.168.42.203 IP406 DS 4.0(5) IPOffice_1
1ms PRN: LAW=U PRI=2, BRI=0, ALOG=4, ADSL=0, VCOMP=16, MDM=2, WAN=0
MODU=0 LANM-0, CkSRC=0 VMAIL=0(VER=1 TYP=1) CALLS=39(TOT=20123)
Does the trace show enough information to indicate to the customer where to begin problem resolution
and what the problem may be?
A. Yes, the voicemail is not connected to the system.
B. Yes, the Auto Attendant is using up all of the voicemail channels.
C. No, I would need to see a trace of them calling voicemail.
D. No, I would also need a Debug_View trace of the voicemail.
Answer: A

Avaya   6401.1   certification 6401.1   6401.1 examen   6401.1   6401.1

NO.15 What information do you need from a customer to be able to reproduce a call park problem? (Choose
three.)
A. accurate description of the problem
B. a System Monitor trace of the problem
C. a Network Assessment
D. the system configuration
E. information on the phones and lines being used
Answer: A,D,E

Avaya examen   6401.1 examen   6401.1 examen   6401.1   6401.1 examen   6401.1

NO.16 Which IP port does Internet Explorer use to access the ContactStore Web page?
A. 8080
B. 8000
C. 8888
D. 8990
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 6401.1   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1 examen

NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has two sites, each with an IP Office linked via a private digital line (E1/T1). The head office is
connected to the public network through a digital exchange line. The remote site gains access to the
public network via the head office.
How should Clock Quality be set in the IP Office on the lines marked X and Y in the exhibit?
A. X - Network -- Y - Fallback
B. X ?Fallback -- Y - Fallback
C. X ?Network -- Y - Unsuitable
D. X ?Fallback -- Y - Unsuitable
Answer: C

certification Avaya   certification 6401.1   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1 examen   certification 6401.1

NO.18 How much space does a recording in VoiceMail Pro use on a hard drive?
A. 1MB per minute
B. 500KB per minute
C. 2MB per minute
D. 1.5MB per minute
Answer: A

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.19 You want to install ContactStore on a PC separate from the VoiceMail Pro PC . Which three steps would
you need to complete for ContactStore to function separately? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the Voice Recording Library on the VoiceMail Pro server is shared on the customer's
network.
B. Verify that the ContactStore service has read and write permissions to the Voice Recording Library
Share.
C. Verify that the ContactStore registry settings have been updated to see the Voice Recording Library
share.
D. Verify that the VoiceMail Pro registry settings have been updated to point to the Voice Recording
Library share.
E. Verify that the ContactStore licenses have been loaded onto the PC running the ContactStore
application.
Answer: A,B,C

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1

NO.20 You have a customer who has loop start analog trunks. Their callers report that the line rings much
longer than the internal extensions ring. What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The line prefix has not been correctly configured.
B. The Ring Off Maximum settings for the trunks are too high.
C. Trunks are set for Loop Start ICLID on the IP Office.
D. The trunk is supplying a long Caller ID string and the Long CLI option has not been checked in
Manager.
Answer: C

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1 examen

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Code d'Examen: 3100.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Communication Manager Administration Exam)
Questions et réponses: 58 Q&As

3100.1 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/3100.1.html

NO.1 You are adding ten new IP telephones in a small company administered with a G430 Media
Gateway and a S8300D ICC main server. The G430 has the S8300D inserted in the slot V1, and
MM71 in the slot V2, and an MM712 in the slot V3.
Which hardware module will act as Gatekeeper for the telephones?
A. MM710
B. MM712
C. MGP on the media gateway
D. S8300D server using Processor Ethernet (PE)
Answer: D

Avaya   3100.1   3100.1

NO.2 You want a user's station to be able to dial extension 5605 and 5608 only.
Which station configuration will achieve this?
A. Assign COR 11 to user' station, In COR11
Set COR-to COR calling permission = 'n' for all except COR 10.
Assign COR to 5605 and 5608.
Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other station object.
B. The FRL = 7to user's station. FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608.
Set FRL for all other stations to 6 and lesser
C. Assign COR 10 to user's station.
In COR 11, set CPR-to-COR calling permission = 'n' for all except.
Assign COR 11 to 5605 and 5608.
Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other object.
D. The FRL = 5 to user's station, FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608.
Set FRL for all other stations to 5 or lesser.
Answer: A

certification Avaya   3100.1 examen   certification 3100.1   3100.1 examen

NO.3 The Avaya Extension to Cellular feature provides users with the capability to have one
administered telephone that supports communication manager features for both an office
telephone and one outside cellular or wireless telephone, two fields must be set to "Yes" in order to
use this functionality:
Enhanced EC500 and extended Cvg/Fwd Admin.
Which command do you use to verify the field settings?
A. System-parameters features
B. System-parameters customer-options
C. System-parameters wireless
D. System-parameters converge-forwarding
Answer: B

Avaya examen   3100.1   3100.1   3100.1

NO.4 Consider the signaling Group Information shown in the exhibit.
Which SAT command can you use to get the IP address of the Far-end Node of the Signaling group
50?
A. Display board CLAN10
B. List node-name all
C. List ip-address nodes
D. List ip-interface nodes
Answer: B

Avaya   3100.1   3100.1   3100.1   3100.1   3100.1

NO.5 There are two GUI-based access tools available: Avaya site administration (ASA) and system
management interface (SMI).
Which statement correctly differentiates between ASA and SMI?
A. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but ASA is being replaced by SMI.
B. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but SMI is for technicians and ASA
is for customers.
C. SMI provides access to less frequent administration, installation and upgrade functions, while ASA
provides access to day-to-day administration functions.
D. Old hardware and software (Pre - 5.x) is administered using SMI, while current hardware and
software (5.x and later) is administered using ASA.
Answer: C

Avaya   3100.1   certification 3100.1   3100.1 examen

NO.6 A remote user Avaya softphone to work from home reports that the client desktop application
will not register. After verifying that the user has configured the softphone application to "point" to
the current IP address of a Communication Manager Gatekeeper using an administered extension,
you ask if the user supplied a password when logging on. The user confirms that the password was
used on each log-on attempt.
You look up the user's information and note that the type field is 4620 (IP telephone) and the
security code field is.
With reference to the scenario described in the exhibit, which action should you take to ensure that
the user can use the IP SoftPhone?
A. Change the IP SoftPhone field to y.
B. Change the Converge Path 1 value to match the value in converge path 2.
C. Change the message Lamp Ext value to match the extension number.
D. Change the name in the name field to match the name as administered in the LDAP directory.
Answer: A

Avaya examen   3100.1   certification 3100.1   certification 3100.1   3100.1 examen

NO.7 Communication Manager Backups are done through the system management interface (SMI).
Which three statements about the Communication Manager backup function are correct? (Choose
three)
A. The backup function creates two complete files on the internal hardware drive.
B. The backup function can create a file on a network device using protocols: SCP , SFTP , or FTP .
C. The backup function can encrypt the file with a pass phrase.
D. The backup is done dynamically and cannot be scheduled in advance.
E. The full Backup option does not do Save Transaction Command Automatically before creating the
backup file.
Answer: B,C,E

certification Avaya   3100.1   3100.1   3100.1 examen

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Code d'Examen: 3300
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Contact Center Administration Exam)
Questions et réponses: 61 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer with Avaya Contract Center in SIP environment would like to add voice processing
commands to an application.
Which block would be required?
A. IVR
B. Treatment
C. Output
D. Input
Answer: D

certification Avaya   3300   certification 3300

NO.2 How many seconds are recommended that a script should wait after queuing a contact to a skillset?
A. WAIT 1
B. WAIT 2
C. WAIT 4
D. WAIT 8
Answer: B

Avaya   certification 3300   3300 examen   3300   3300

NO.3 A supervisor with Avaya Aura Contact Center would like to create a custom Application Display The
data fields available are cumulative, fixed, and instantaneous. What is an example of a cumulative data
field?
A. Application Name
B. Average Answered Delay
C. Calls Waiting
D. Service Level Threshold
Answer: B

certification Avaya   3300 examen   3300   certification 3300

NO.4 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center has created a loop in a script application with the following
parameters:
1. While the caller is in the loop, the customer wants an announcement to play every thirty seconds, and
the queued status of the call and the In-service status of the skillset must be evaluated
2. If the call is not queued, and if the skillset is out of service, the call will be sent to an out of service
announcement

NO.5 Which two commands can update the value of a call variable? (Choose two.)
A. GIVE
B. READVAR
C. ASSIGN TO
D. COLLECT DIGITS
E. SEND REQUEST
Answer: CD

certification Avaya   3300 examen   3300 examen   certification 3300

NO.6 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center has written a script application. The Problem View Is
showing a syntax error with the following area of script: IF DAY OF WEEK EQUALS MONDAY..FRIDAY
THEN
What is the correct syntax required for this application?
A. IF DAYS OF WEEK EQUALS MONDAY..FRIDAY THEN
B. IF DAY OF WEEK EQUAI S MON..FRI THEN
C. IF DAY OF WEEK - MONDAY FRIDAY THEN
D. IF DAY OF WEEK = MONDAY..FRIDAY THEN
Answer: D

Avaya   3300 examen   3300   3300

NO.7 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center will use the Contact Router for all calls entering the system.
What is one function of the Contact Router?
A. It links agents to applications.
B. It links skillsets to applications.
C. It links Intrlnslcs to applications.
D. It links Control Directory Numbers (CDN) to applications.
Answer: D

certification Avaya   3300   3300   3300 examen

NO.8 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center wants to see in a report the percentage of calls being
answered in the automotive skillset in 20 seconds or less.
What would need to be programmed to obtain this data?
A. Create an application threshold class, set the Level 1 %Servlce_Level_S Threshold to 20, the Level
2 %Servlce_Level_S threshold to 30, and assign the threshold class to the automotive ski 11 set.
B. Create a skillset threshold class, set the Level 1 %Service_Level_S Threshold lo 10, the Level 2%
Service_Level_S Threshold to 20 and assign the threshold class to the automotive skillset.
C. Create an application threshold class, set the Level 1 Service Level Threshold to 20, and assign the
threshold class to the automotive skillset.
D. Create a skillset threshold class, set the Level 1 Service Level Threshold to 20, and assign the
threshold class to the automotive skillset.
Answer: D

Avaya   3300   3300   3300

NO.9 If the call is not queued and the skillset is in service. It must be re-queued.
What is the proper script syntax to accomplish this requirement.?
A. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED THEN
IF OUT OF SERVICE SKILLSET automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_stlll_busy_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
B. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED THEN
IF NOT OUT OF SERVICE automotive THEN
QUEUE TO SKILLSET automotive
WAIT 2
ELSE
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF E
ND IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_bu5y_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
C. Section wait_loop
IF QUEUED AND
IF OUT OF SERVICE automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_busy_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
D. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED AND
IF NOT OUT OF SERVICE SKILLSET automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECUE walt_loop
Answer: B

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3.A customer is using the intrinsic Call Rate in & script. For what Information is the system looking when
the Call Rate Intrinsic is used?
A. the number of contacts that entered the system in the last 10 minutes
B. the total number of active calls in the system
C. the number of calls that entered the system in the last 10 minutes
D. the number of calls answered in the preceding 10 minutes
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement regarding scripts is true?
A. A secondary script is the only place treatments can be applied to the call.
B. A primary script is referenced directly from the Master script, otherwise It Is a secondary script.
C. A primary script is the only place that call variables can be assigned.
D. Secondary and primary scripts are exactly the same.
Answer: B

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