Certification IBM de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 000-N26, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-N26
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Information Management DB2 10 pureScale Technical Mastery Test v2)
Questions et réponses: 34 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following options describes correct cluster caching facility states when both
primary and secondary cluster caching facilities are in sync?
A.primary: PRIMARY secondary: SECONDARY
B.primary: SYNC secondary: SYNC
C.primary: PRIMARY secondary: PEER
D.primary: PEER secondary: CATCHUP
Answer: C

IBM   000-N26   certification 000-N26   000-N26 examen   000-N26 examen   000-N26

NO.2 Consider the scenario that a technical expert accidentally trips over the power cord of a DB2
pureScale cluster node, bringing the node offline.Assume the cluster contains a SECONDARY cluster
caching facility and other DB2 members.What will be the outcome of this situation if the node was
hosting both the PRIMARY cluster caching facility and a DB2 member?
A.The secondary cluster caching facility will become the primary.All client transactions sent to be
processed by the offline server will be re-routed to the remaining members within the cluster.
B.DB2 pureScale cannot host both the cluster caching facility and a member on a single host.
C.The cluster will put all transactions on hold until the server is back online.
D.The secondary cluster caching facility will be in SYNC state.All client connections will be
terminated and will need to re-issued by the client.
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-N26 examen   000-N26

NO.3 Consider the scenario of a DB2 pureScale environment with two DB2 members, and assume
there is an active connection to "member 3".Due to some maintenance emergency, "member 3"
needs to be stopped.Which one of the following commands will stop "member 3"?
A.db2stop force member 3
B.db2stop immediate member 3
C.db2stop node 3 all members
D.db2stop member 3
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-N26 examen   000-N26   000-N26   000-N26

NO.4 How does DB2 pureScale handle member(s) failover scenarios?
A.All data remains locked until the failover operation is completed.
B.Future connections are evenly distributed among the surviving members of the cluster.
C.Current connections to the failed member will be on hold until the member recovers and is back
online.
D.DB2 pureScale requires database administrator intervention to handle failover scenarios.
Answer: B

IBM   000-N26   000-N26 examen   000-N26 examen

NO.5 In a DB2 pureScale environment, which of the following statements is NOT a characteristic of
the cluster caching facility?
A.This component is used to balance the workload through a global workload resource pool.
B.This component is used to coordinate locking through a global lock manager to prevent conflicting
access to the same table data by different members.
C.This component is used to keep page caching consistent across all members through a shared
group buffer pool.
D.This component provides a global buffer pool.
Answer: A

IBM   000-N26   000-N26 examen

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Certification IBM de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 000-082, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-082
Nom d'Examen: IBM (System x Sales Expert V4)
Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

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NO.1 A PureFlex prospect is concerned about rack capacity on a single rack configuration. Which of
the
following is the maximum number of PureFlex chassis that fit in this configuration?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-082   certification 000-082   certification 000-082   000-082

NO.2 A customer wants to manage their VMware ESXi environment. Which of the following is a
correct
option for this environment?
A. DCOM
B. Platform Agent
C. Common Agent
D. IBM Upward Integration for VMware vCenter
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-082   000-082   certification 000-082   000-082   certification 000-082

NO.3 Which of the following is a collection of IBM sales resources available to assist Business
Partners?
A. xREF
B. Techline
C. Redbooks
D. Quick Reference Mobile Apps
Answer: D

IBM   000-082   certification 000-082   000-082   000-082

NO.4 You are meeting with a customer CIO. You have done research on the company and the
direction
the company is heading which is to reduce cost through automation. The proposal is geared to
saving costs for the company over several years through reduced acquisition costs over time.
However, the company needs to make a substantial upfront investment. Which of the following
questions determine if your proposal meets the company's objectives?
A. Is IRR more important than TCO?
B. What payback period do you use?
C. How important is operational efficiency?
D. What discount rate do you use for projects?
Answer: B

IBM   000-082 examen   000-082   000-082

NO.5 A System x Sales Expert is discussing PureFlex with a System x customer. The customer asks
about how a PureFlex differs from their currently installed BladeCenter solution. Which of the
following best describes PureFlex?
A. A fully integrated non-virtualized infrastructure of server, storage and networking for database
applications
B. A fully integrated and open infrastructure for flexibility with integrated automation and
optimization expertise
C. A set of independently sold components comprising server, storage and networking, integrated
by the customer
D. A solution encompasing integration of any IBM server, storage and networking components,
customized for a specific application
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-082   000-082 examen   000-082   000-082

NO.6 A client asks you for a proposal including blades with at least 512GB memory. Which product is
likely to provide the lowest cost to meet this requirement?
A. x220
B. x240
C. x440
D. HS23
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-082 examen   000-082

NO.7 Which of the following tools is available for IBM BladeCenter that allows direct power
monitoring
by IBM Systems Director through the AMM?
A. Integrated Management Module (IMM)
B. Active Energy Manager (AEM)
C. Tivoli Provisioning Manager (TPM)
D. Energy Monitoring and Control (EMC)
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-082 examen   000-082 examen   000-082   000-082

NO.8 A midsized customer is looking to simplify their x86 and UNIX environment and move in to a
private cloud. They currently have two POWER7 720's running various business applications and
four x3550 servers hosting exchange and web front ends for the applications on the POWER
systems. Which IBM software is selected by default when choosing a PureFlex System Standard
to enable cloud services?
A. ISDM
B. Smart Cloud Entry
C. Smart Cloud Enterprise
D. DB2 Universal Database
Answer: B

IBM   000-082   000-082   000-082   certification 000-082

NO.9 A customer is planning to configure call home for their small group of managed systems. They
have five windows systems and five ESXi systems on System x3650 M4. Which of the following is
the best IBM tool to configure call home in this environment?
A. IMM V2
B. Systems Director 6.3.1 or later
C. Dynamic System Analysis
D. Service and Support Manager
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-082   000-082 examen   certification 000-082

NO.10 The IT department of an enterprise customer that has grown through mergers and
acquisitions is
evaluating systems management solutions to manage their existing IBM iSeries Servers, IBM
Power Systems, BladeCenter, Windows, Linux, and AIX servers. The goal is to not only monitor
the hardware and operating systems, but also provide performance trending. Which of the
following IBM solutions will address their needs?
A. Tivoli Monitoring
B. Systems Director
C. Flex Systems Manager
D. Maximo Asset Management
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-082   000-082   000-082   000-082

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Code d'Examen: 00M-667
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Mobile Foundation Enterprise Sales Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 43 Q&As

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NO.1 What added benefit is there to the IBM Worklight Mobile Platform compared to in-house
mobile
development?
A. IBM Worklight provides a middleware services layer.
B. IBM Worklight provides Optimization capabilities.
C. IBM Worklight provides multiple features to address enterprise security requirements.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

IBM examen   00M-667   00M-667   00M-667 examen   00M-667

NO.2 Which scenario is NOT a strong use cases for IBM Worklight?
A. A bank looking to deploy one application for millions of customers
B. A global financial organization who wants to deploy 10 applications for different lines of
business
C. A technical conglomerate that wants to build 50 applications but has tight control over their
branding and security processes
D. A company that wants to support legacy rugged Windows CE/ 6.5 devices
Answer: D

IBM examen   certification 00M-667   00M-667   00M-667   00M-667 examen   00M-667 examen

NO.3 Which of the following pro/con statement(s) best represents the characteristics of developing
a
fully native mobile application?
A. Pro - limited user experience / Con - short development cycles
B. Pro - engaging user experience / Con - inefficient and costly development for multiple devices
C. Pro - simple development effort / Con - applications are more secure
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

IBM examen   00M-667 examen   certification 00M-667
6. In addition to traditional mobile device management which capabilities are included in IEM for
Mobile Devices?
A. An integrated security and compliance picture for all devices.
B. Integration with related IT systems such as asset management, service desk, and security
intelligence.
C. A unique, highly scalable architecture that allows instant delivery of new capabilities.
D. All of the above
Answer: A

IBM examen   00M-667   certification 00M-667
7. What is the main challenge associated with the “bring your own device” (BYOD) trend?
A. Companies want their employees to use issued devices so budget is not wasted.
B. IT is expected to support personal devices and their access to sensitive back-end systems.
C. HR wants to avoid employees bringing status symbols to work.
D. Companies don't want employees using social applications at work.
Answer: B

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8. What is a hybrid mobile application?
A. An eco-friendly application that runs on electrical power and is overpriced for its value
B. An application that is developed by two separate teams integrating server-side and client-side
assets respectively
C. An application that is developed using both native and web-based coding languages
D. A mobile web application developed using JavaScript
Answer: C

IBM   00M-667   00M-667   00M-667   00M-667
9. What is Cast Iron used for?
A. Simple and rapid Cloud application integration projects
B. Connecting Cloud and On Premise applications
C. Data migration and Data Synchronization
D. All of the above
Answer: B

IBM examen   00M-667   00M-667   00M-667 examen   00M-667
10. Why is Cast Iron preferred over coding for clients or business?
A. Reduced Labor Costs: The hidden costs of custom code are revealed over time for maintaining
and changing integrations.
B. Custom code is point-to-point and thus not scalable over time.
C. Custom code does not provide visibility into what is working or broken.
D. All of the above
Answer: A

IBM examen   certification 00M-667   00M-667 examen   certification 00M-667

NO.4 IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) provides:
A. Unified endpoint device management
B. Single point of control and visibility
C. Reduced hardware and administrative costs
D. All of the above
Answer: C

IBM   00M-667 examen   certification 00M-667   00M-667

NO.5 Which customer scenario represents the most ideal prospect for IBM Worklight Platform?
A. The customer that wants a pure native application and is looking to their digital design agency,
that built their ecommerce website, to now build their mobile application
B. The customer that is looking for a solution to help build mobile hybrid applications in house by
their web development team
C. The customer that believes they do not need a presence on commercial App Stores and just
wants a server side mobile web experience for their customers
D. The customer that is looking for a simple single app for a single device for its internal
employees
Answer: B

IBM   00M-667   00M-667

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Code d'Examen: A2180-175
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.2, Development (Entry))
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 To add a custom Coach XSL transformation to artifacts in a process application, the XSL file should be
added as:
A. a managed file.
B. a localization resource.
C. an installation service.
D. process application settings.
Answer: A

IBM   A2180-175 examen   A2180-175 examen   A2180-175 examen

NO.2 A bank has a home loan process containing an 'Approve Credit' activity with a service attached with the
same name. During the activity 'Approve Credit', a credit check is done and credit approval is based on
the amount to be borrowed and the borrower's credit score. The loan application has five pieces of data:
creditScore, newHomeAddress, amountToBorrow, creditApproved, and appraisalPassed. The data is
organized in a complex variable, loanApp. What is the minimum output from the 'Approve Credit' service?
A. loanApp
B. creditApproved
C. appraisalPassed
D. amountToBorrow
Answer: B

IBM examen   A2180-175   certification A2180-175   A2180-175

NO.3 An activity is defined as a conditional activity, and a script that returns a Boolean is written in the text
box in the Condition tab. What will happen if the script returns true?
A. The activity will be skipped.
B. The activity will be performed.
C. The activity will be performed if it is added to tw.system.process.selectedConditionalActivities.
D. The activity will be skipped even if the activity is added to
tw.system.process.selectedConditionalActivities.
Answer: B

IBM   A2180-175 examen   A2180-175 examen

NO.4 What is the default visibility property for all new controls?
A. Hidden
B. Editable
C. Disabled
D. Required
Answer: B

IBM examen   A2180-175 examen   A2180-175   A2180-175   A2180-175

NO.5 A developer was asked to create a Coach based on the company's form for processing a new employee.
For a copy of the company's form, refer to the Exhibit below.
Which simple primitive variable types should be used in this process?
A. idNumber (Integer), streetAddress (String), state (String), city (String)
B. idNumber (Integer), streetAddress (Integer), state (String), city (String)
C. idNumber (String), streetAddress (Address), state (Integer), city (String)
D. idNumber (String), streetAddress (Address), state (String), city (String)
Answer: A

certification IBM   A2180-175   A2180-175

NO.6 What is the correct JavaScript syntax to initialize a local variable named contact of a complex type
Contact?
A. contact = new Contact();
B. tw.local.contact = new Contact();
C. tw.local.contact = new tw.local.Contact();
D. tw.local.contact = new tw.object.Contact();
Answer: D

IBM examen   A2180-175   A2180-175   A2180-175

NO.7 The service "Get Request ID" needs to know the number of existing requests of a particular type in
order to generate an ID for the request. It uses a nested service named "Get Request Count" for this
purpose. What can be determined about data mapping?
A. The type of the request is an output variable of the 'Get Request ID' service.
B. The unique ID for the request is an input variable to the 'Get Request ID' service.
C. The number of existing requests of a particular type is an input variable to the 'Get Request Count'
service.
D. The 'Get Request ID' service has a private variable that maps to the output from 'Get Request Count'
service.
Answer: D

IBM   A2180-175 examen   certification A2180-175

NO.8 An application has five pieces of data: creditScore, newHomeAddress, amountToBorrow,
creditApproved, and appraisalPassed. The data is organized in a complex variable, loanApp. How should
the developer reference the credit score?
A. tw.local.creditScore
B. tw.loanApp.creditScore
C. tw.local.loanApp.creditScore
D. tw.local.approveCredit.loanApp.creditScore
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification A2180-175   A2180-175 examen   certification A2180-175   A2180-175 examen

NO.9 A developer needs to build the Coach shown in the following Exhibit.
What is the minimum number of sections the developer needs to create in the Coach?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

IBM   A2180-175 examen   certification A2180-175

NO.10 For each section on a Coach, there is an HTML table generated in the background. How are table rows
dynamically defined or allocated? Based on the:
A. number of sections on the Coach.
B. number of Controls added to each section.
C. entry specified on the customization property.
D. Table Override property in the Presentation category.
Answer: B

certification IBM   A2180-175   certification A2180-175

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Code d'Examen: A2090-730
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: DB2 9 Family Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 303 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following tools can be used to automate table reorganization operations?
A. Control Center
B. Command Center
C. Command Line Processor
D. Task Center
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following can be viewed with the Journal?
A. Historical information about tasks, database changes, messages, and notifications
B. Information about licenses associated with each DB2 9 product installed on a particular
system
C. Graphical representations of data access plans chosen for SQL statements
D. Warning and alarm thresholds for database indicators
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following tasks can NOT be performed using the Developer Workbench?
A. Develop and debug an SQL stored procedure
B. Develop and debug a user-defined data type
C. Develop and debug a user-defined function
D. Develop and run XML queries
Answer: B

IBM   A2090-730   A2090-730 examen

NO.4 Which of the following products is used to shred extensible markup language
documents?
A. DB2 AVI Extender
B. DB2 Text Extender
C. DB2 XML Extender
D. DB2 Spatial Extender
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an OLTP database?
A. Granular transactions
B. Current data
C. Optimized for queries
D. Frequent updates
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the purpose of the Design Advisor?
A. To analyze workloads and make recommendations for indexes and MQTs
B. To present a graphical representation of a data access plan and recommend design
changes that will
improve performance
C. To replicate data between a DB2 database and another relational database
D. To configure clients so they can access databases stored on remote servers
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following DB2 products can only be installed on a System i server?
A. DB2 for z/OS
B. DB2 for i5/OS
C. DB2 Data Warehouse Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT true about XML columns?
A. Data can be retrieved by SQL.
B. Data can be retrieved byXQuery.
C. XML columns must be altered to accommodate additional parent and child relationships.
D. Access to any portion of an XML document can be direct, without reading the whole
document.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following tools can make recommendations for indexes and/or MQTs to
improve the
performance of DB2 applications?
A. Design Advisor
B. Visual Explain
C. Performance Advisor
D. Configuration Assistant
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is the major difference between relational data and XML data?
A. Relational data is self-describing; XML data is not
B. Relational data has inherent ordering; XML data does not
C. Relational data must be tabular; XML data does not have to be tabular
D. Relational data is comprised of entities; XML data is comprised of numbers, characters,
and dates
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following DB2 tools allows a user to set DB2 registry parameters?
A. Task Center
B. Visual Explain
C. Configuration Assistant
D. Satellite Administration Center
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a
Linux server
that has 6 CPUs?
A. DB2 Express Edition
B. DB2 Personal Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following describes how DB2 9 stores an XML document if the XML
Extender is not used?
A. CLOB
B. BLOB
C. Hierarchically
D. Rows and columns
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following is the main feature of an OLTP application?
A. Summarized queries
B. Granular transactions
C. Voluminous historical data
D. Heterogeneous data sources
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on
an HP-UX server?
A. DB2 Express-C
B. DB2 Express
C. DB2 Personal Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which product must be installed on z/OS to allow a COBOL program running on that
machine to
access data on a remote DB2 for z/OS server?
A. DB2 for z/OS
B. DB2 Run-Time Client for z/OS
C. DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition for z/OS
D. z/OS Application Connectivity to DB2 for z/OS and OS/390
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following products is allowed to access other DB2 servers, but cannot
accept requests
from other remote clients.?
A. DB2 Personal Edition
B. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
C. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
D. DB2 Data Warehouse Edition
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which two of the following allow you to perform administrative tasks against database
objects?
A. Control Center
B. Journal
C. Command Line Processor
D. Task Center
E. Health Center
Answer: AC

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NO.19 Which tool must be used to analyze all of the database operations performed by an
application against
a DB2 for i5/OS database?
A. Visual Explain
B. Activity Monitor
C. SQL Performance Monitor
D. DB2 Performance Monitor
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following tools can be used to catalog a database?
A. Visual Explain
B. Alert Center
C. Journal
D. Configuration Assistant
Answer: A

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NO.21 What is the SQL Performance Monitor used for?
A. To examine the health of a DB2 Database Manager instance
B. To visually construct complex DML statements and examine the results of their execution
C. To schedule tasks, run tasks, and send notifications about completed tasks to other users
D. To analyze database operations performed against a DB2 for i5/OS database "Pass Any
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which of the following best describes the difference between the DB2 Spatial Extender
and the DB2
Geodetic Extender?
A. The DB2 Spatial Extender uses a latitude-longitude coordinate system; the DB2 Geodetic
Extender
uses a planar, x- and y-coordinate system
B. The DB2 Geodetic Extender is used to describe points, lines, and polygons; the DB2
Spatial Extender
is used to find area, endpoints, and intersects
C. The DB2 Spatial Extender treats the world as a flat map; the DB2 Geodetic Extender
treats the world
as a round globe
D. The DB2 Geodetic Extender can be used to manage information like the locations of office
buildings or
the size of a flood zone; the DB2 Spatial Extender can be used for calculations and
visualizations in
disciplines like military command/control and asset management, meteorology and
oceanography
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which of the following tools can be used to schedule a backup operation that is to be
run every
Sunday evening?
A. Journal
B. Task Center
C. Activity Monitor
D. Command Line Processor
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a data warehouse?
A. Summarized queries that perform aggregations and joins
B. Heterogeneous data sources
C. Voluminous historical data
D. Sub-second response time
Answer: D

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NO.25 A client application on z/OS must access a DB2 database on a Solaris Server. At a
minimum, which of
the following products must be installed on the Solaris workstation?
A. DB2 ConnectEnterprise Edition
B. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition and DB2 ConnectEnterprise Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a
Windows server
that has 2 CPUs?
A. DB2 Everyplace
B. DB2 Express Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which of the following is used to create and debug user-defined functions?
A. SQL Assist
B. Control Center
C. Command Editor
D. Developer Workbench
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following is true about XML columns?
A. XML columns are used to store XML documents as a hierarchical set of entities
B. OnlyXQuery can be used to retrieve an XML document from an XML column
C. XML columns must be altered to accommodate additional parent/child relationships if they
are used in
referential constraints
D. In order to access any portion of an XML document stored in an XML column, the entire
document
must be retrieved
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following products must be installed on an AIX server in order to build an
application for
AIX that will access a DB2 for z/OS database?
A. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
B. DB2 Personal Developer's Edition
C. DB2 Universal Developer's Edition
D. DB2 Universal DatabaseEnterprise Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
Answer: C

IBM examen   A2090-730 examen   A2090-730 examen

NO.30 For which of the following is a data warehouse optimized?
A. Backup and recovery
B. Transactions
C. Security
D. Queries
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C2140-135
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Host Access Transformation Services (HATS) v7.1)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 On which environment(s) are HATS Web applications, developed using the HATS
Toolkit, supported to
be deployed and run?
A. Eclipse RCP and Lotus(R) Expeditor Client
B. IBM WebSphere application server production runtime
C. IBM and non-IBM Portal Server production runtime
D. any J2EE-compatible application server available on the market
Answer: B

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NO.2 How might a developer use a shared global variable?
A. share a variable value between the sessions of two different users
B. share a variable value that can be used in a future session
C. share a variable value between two different applications being accessed by a single user
D. share a variable with a non-HATS Web application
Answer: C

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NO.3 To help with debugging HATS applications on a test or production system, a display
terminal window
can be displayed. Which statement is FALSE about the display terminal window?
A. Turning on the display terminal option can seriously affect performance or overload the
server.
B. The display terminal functions can be turned on using the extended HATS application
button
Standard.?
C. It is possible to interact with the host application using the host screen in the terminal
window.
D. The display terminal functions can be turned on for any new host connections by selecting
the Enable
Display Terminal box on the Trace Settings panel.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What would most improve end user response time for a HATS application?
A. decreasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm
B. using fast 3270e with a host supporting contention resolution
C. increasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm
D. using fast 3270e with a 5250 host
Answer: B

certification IBM   C2140-135   C2140-135

NO.5 In the Lotus Expeditor Client environment, HATS rich client applications can be
managed, deployed,
and controlled in a number of ways. What is NOT a supported environment?
A. Lotus Expeditor Server, which contains the Device Manager Server component
B. WebSphere Portal, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access to
applications
C. Eclipse update site, which provides provisioning and updating using a standard Web
server
D. WebSphere Application Server, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access
to
applications
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C2140-646
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Manual Tester)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 When executing a test, what does a small brown box indicate?
A.Manual Tester execution stopped.
B.The executing line is a Verification Point.
C.Paste Data or Compare Data is available to the tester.
D.A screenshot can be associated with this Verification Point.
Answer:C

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NO.2 When using the Export Formatter to process data according to your needs, what do
you modify?
A.getDestinationFile() and run()
B.formatAndExportEvent () and run()
C.setDestinationFile and HtmlFormatter
D.formatAndExportEvent () and getDestinationFile()
Answer:B

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NO.3 A client's tests are written in Microsoft Word, with each step a row in a table. Which
statement is true
about importing these tests into RMT?
A.The import automatically preserves the table formatting.
B.The client must check the Preserve Formatting checkbox for RMT to keep the table
formatting.
C.They have an RMT test with listed steps because RMT does not support Microsoft Word
tables.
D.Each row becomes a step, not part of a table (but they can copy-paste the table into a
single step within
the RMT test).
Answer:D

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NO.4 A tester needs to create tests that include many application screenshots, most of which
already exist in
files from creating the user manuals. What is the easiest way to incorporate these into the
tests?
A.open the user manuals; select and copy each screenshot image; paste images into the
RMT test
B.using the RMT Capture Image feature, choose the Graphic File on Disk option; browse to
the file
location
C.open the user manuals; using the RMT Capture Image feature, choose the Region on the
Screen
option; select each screenshot
D.copy the screenshot files into the same folder as the RMT test; use the RMT Capture
Image feature to
add each image into the RMT test
Answer:B

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NO.5 A tester deletes a statement from the Reuse view. How does Rational Manual Tester
update scripts that
reference the statement?
A.The statements are removed from the Reuse view and removed from all test scripts that
reference them.
B.The statements are removed from the Reuse view, and made local in all the test scripts
that reference
them.
C.The statements are removed from the Reuse view and flagged as removed in the scripts
that reference
them.
D.The Statements are removed from the Reuse view but the statements are still referenced
in the scripts
in which they were used.
Answer:D

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Code d'Examen: A2040-956
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Update)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following notes.ini variables must be in place to enable the Domino
Attachment and Object
Service on your Domino server?
A.ServerTasks=DAOS
B.AttachmentService=2
C.Create_R85_Databases=1
D.DAOS_Enabled_On_Server=1
Answer: C

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NO.2 Each of the following is true about the ID vault EXCEPT;
A.Smartcard-enabled IDs cannot be stored in a vault.
B.You can not use the CA process when registering users into the vault.
C.Performing certificate authority key rollover on certifier IDs is not supported.
D.You cannot use the CA process when creating cross-certificates that are needed to
establish vault trust
and password reset
Answer: B

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NO.3 Users are able to change settings for their own devices in Lotus Traveler; however,
the synchronization
default settings for all users comes from which of the following files?
A.NTSConfig.xml
B.iltraveler.config
C.travsyncconfig.xml
D.traveler.properties
Answer: A

IBM   A2040-956 examen   A2040-956   A2040-956 examen

NO.4 Which version of Domino is the earliest version of Domino that DCT (Domino
Configuration Tuner) can
be run on to evaluate settings?
A.Domino 7.0.0
B.Domino 8.0.0
C.Domino 8.5.0
D.Domino 6.5.0
Answer: A

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NO.5 James is the administrator of ABC company and wants to deploy ID vault.In which
order should he
perform the steps i.use policies to assign user IDs to the vault ii.create the vault database on
a server,
iii.specify which user organizations trust the vault and assign password reset authority,
iv.create the vault
ID file and specify at least one vault administrator,
A.ii, iv, iii, i
B.iii, ii, iv, i
C.ii, iii, iv, i
D.Steps not complete
Answer: A

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NO.6 In databases that use DAOS, Domino performs which of the following with every
document with an
attachment?
A.Domino saves a separate and complete copy
B.Domino saves a reference to each attached file
C.Domino creates a field in the document called $DAOSnopurge
D.Domino copies the attachment to a central repository and leaves a copy attached to the
document
E.Domino splits the attachment into smaller sections and compresses each section and file
reference
Answer: B

IBM   A2040-956   certification A2040-956   A2040-956

NO.7 You want to enable early authentication for all new users after Lotus Notes 8.5
Standard has been
installed.What steps are needed to achieve this:
A.It is enabled by default.
B.Set the parameter EARLY_AUTHENTICATION_ENABLED=1 in the users' notes.ini.
C.Set the option in the security settings document in a policy that will be applied to the end
user.
D.Change the target in the Lotus Notes shortcut on the users' desktops to point to
nlnotes.exe instead of
notes.exe.
Answer: A

IBM   certification A2040-956   certification A2040-956   A2040-956   A2040-956 examen

NO.8 While creating the ID vault, you must configure the organizations that trust the vault for
ID
storage.Which of the following does this create?
A.An AdminP request is created
B.ID vault administrator accounts
C.Vault trust certificates in the Domino Directory
D.Certifier ID files of the organizations or organizational units with vault trust certificates
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your development team has modified the client download site for Lotus Traveler.All of
the changes,
though, are not being seen as the server is still pointing to the old directory and files.You
have
successfully modified the Home URL in the Internet Site Document.Which of the following
must also be
modified?
A.The servlet utilized by the Domino Web server
B.The NTS_WEBSITE_HOME parameter in the notes.ini file
C.Disable Internet Site documents in the Domino server
D.Make TCP port 8642 available to all users to see the new site documents
Answer: B

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NO.10 Domino Attachment and Object Service is supported on each of the following,
EXCEPT?
A.Mail.box databases
B.DB2 enabled databases
C.Non-mail file databases
D.Domino servers hosted on an operating system in a virtual environment
Answer: B

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NO.11 After enabling DAOS for a mail database on your server, which of the following
compact tasks must be
run on the database to complete the initialization for DAOS on that database?
A.In-place
B.Copy-style
C.Revert database
D.Discard view indexes
Answer: B

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NO.12 Domino 8.5 includes both Domino server roaming and file server roaming as an option
in this release
for end users. You wish to upgrade one group of users to Domino roaming and another group
to file server
roaming.How would you do this?
A.Domino server roaming and file server roaming can only be performed from a policy and
not from the
Admin client.
B.Domino server roaming and file server roaming can only be performed from the Admin
client, and not a
policy.
C.Domino server roaming is performed from the Admin client, and file server roaming is
performed from a
policy.
D.Domino server roaming is performed from a policy, and file server roaming is performed
from the Admin
client.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Creating an ID vault on your Domino server requires: Administrator access to the
server on which you
create it Editor access to the Domino Directory and which of the following?
A.Create databases and templates access
B.Membership in the ID Vault Admins group
C.The ID Vault Admin role in the Domino Directory
D.Specifying multiple Domino servers to host the ID Vault database
Answer: A

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NO.14 Terry is working on a document in a database on a server that is DAOS-
enabled.While in the document,
Terry replaces the attachment with a new version.Which of the following occurs to the
attachment in the
DAOS store?
A.The server adjusts references to the attachment in DAOS
B.The server removes the reference from all mail files that pointed to that original file
reference
C.The server removes the previous attachment entirely from DAOS and inserts the link to the
new
attachment
D.The server uploads the full previous attachment to all user mail files that pointed to that
original file
reference
Answer: A

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NO.15 Your Domino server has been configured for DAOS, and all mailfiles have also been
enabled
successfully.In which of the following times will consolidation occur when a user saves an
attachment that
meets the defined DAOS size settings?
A.Immediately
B.The next time the DAOS service runs
C.After the user closes the current Notes session
D.By the schedule defined in the server configuration document
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C2090-541
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9.7 DBA for Linux UNIX and Windows)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button
Given the INSERT statements shown below:
INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (1 ,'M' 54); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (2, 'F', 38); INSERT INTO
applicant VALUES (3, 'M', 21); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (4, 'F', 91); INSERT INTO applicant
VALUES (5, 'C', 50); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (6, 'C', 70); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (7, 'C',
95);
How many rows will be successfully inserted?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement is correct about informational constraints?
A. An informational constraint can be used by the SQL compiler to improve the access to data and
query performance.
B. The database manager uses an informational constraint to enforce the uniqueness of the key
during changes to the columns of the unique constraint.
C. An informational constraint is a column or combination of columns that has the same properties
as a unique constraint.
D. An informational constraint specifies that every row that is inserted or updated in the table must
conform to the definition of the table.
Answer: A

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5. Click the Exhibit button.
IBM 000-541: Practice Exam
In the exhibit, where would the authentication of the supplied userid and password from a remote
client take place?
A. AIX operating system
B. LDAP Server
C. Kerberos Server
D. "MyPlugin.so" GSS-API plug-in
Answer: B

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6. Which two plug-in types does the DB2 database system provide? (Choose two.)
A. Group retrieval
B. Kerberos authentication
C. Server authentication
D. Encryption authentication
Answer: A,C

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7. What are three authorization categories in DB2? (Choose three.)
A. System-level
B. Database-level
C. Network-level
D. Object-level
E. Instance-level
Answer: A,B,D

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8. What are three system and database level authorizations available with DB2? (Choose three.)
A. SYSMON
B. SYSMNT
C. DBCTRL
D. SYS ADM
E. DBADM
Answer: A,D,E

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9. A DBA wants to use Label Based Access Control (LBAC) to protect Individual rows in a table.
Which data type must be used to create a column to hold the necessary LBAC security data?
A. SYSPR0C.DB2LBACU\BEL
B. SYSPR0C.DB2SECURITYU\BEL
C. SYSIBM.DB2LBACLABEL
D. SYSIBM.DB2SECURITYLABEL
Answer: D

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10. Which administrative authority is needed to run the audit stored procedures and table
functions such as the AUDIT_DELIM_EXTRACT stored procedure?
A. DBADM
B. SECADM
C. SQLADM
D. SYS ADM
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given the DDL shown below:
CREATE TABLE tab1 (coll SMALLINT );
CREATE VIEW v1 AS SELECT coll FROMtabl WHERE coll > 25 ;
CREATE VIEW V2 AS SELECT COI1 FROM v1 WITH CASCADED CHECK
OPTION
CREATE VIEW v3 AS SELECT coll FROM v2 WHERE coll < 100 ;
Which statement will fail?
A. INSERT INTO v2 VALUES (35)
B. INSERT INTO v1 VALUES (5)
C. INSERT INTO v3 VALUES (25)
D. INSERT INTO v3 VALUES (200)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which command will reorg all indexes for a table named TABA?
A. REORG TABLEtaba INDEXES INPLACE
B. REORG TABLEtaba AND INDEXES ALL
C. REORG INDEXES FORtaba
D. REORG INDEXES ALL FOR TABLEtaba
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C2090-420
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM InfoSphere MDM Server v9.0)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 You are installing a standalone development environment on a workstation PC with
both the database
and application server running on the PC.
Which statement is true regarding the installation and configuration of this environment?
A. The database tables must be setup manually by running the provided SQL scripts.
B. A database and database user need to exist, but the InfoSphere MDM Server Workbench
tooling can
setup the necessary tables as part of an automated process.
C. A database server needs to be installed, but the InfoSphere MDM Server Workbench
tooling will
automatically setup everything, including creation of a database user, as part of an
automated process.
D. The application server needs to be manually configured with the appropriate data sources
which the
InfoSphere MDM Server Workbench will then use to setup the database as part of an
automated process.
Answer: B

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NO.2 As part of a maintenance team for an InfoSphere MDM Server implementation, you are
investigating
the "EndDate must be after StartDate" error. This error is generated multiple times when
uploading large
delta requests containing multiple objects of different types.
Which action would help you to quickly detect the object causing this error?
A. Check all of the objects in the request message for discrepancy in the dates.
B. Run the transaction causing the error in debug mode.
C. Check the error response for component details to identify the correct object type.
D. Change the log level to a higher level.
Answer: C

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NO.3 As part of an InfoSphere MDM Server application maintenance team, you are analyzing
the numerous
warnings that appear in the InfoSphere MDM Server log file.
What will help you to quickly detect the component producing a particular warning message?
A. Set the logging to the finest level.
B. The sequence of execution flow should logically point to the component.
C. Unique message identifiers used by InfoSphere MDM Server.
D. Adequate experience in InfoSphere MDM Server is required.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two subcomponents make up the Configuration and Management component
of InfoSphere
MDM Server? (Choose two.)
A. A separate set of database tables that may reside on a separate database.
B. A set of database tables that must reside on the same database as InfoSphere MDM
Server.
C. A configuration management console that runs as part of the InfoSphere MDM Server
runtime.
D. A configuration management agent that runs as a separate process from the InfoSphere
MDM Server
runtime.
Answer: AD

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
<soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"
xmlns:soapenc="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"
xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance">
<soapenv:Body>
<soapenv:Fault>
<faultcode>soapenv:Server.securityException</faultcode>
<faultstring>com.ibm.wsspi.wssecurity.SoapSecurityException: WSEC5048E: One of "SOAP
Header"
elements required.</faultstring>
<detail encodingStyle="" />
</soapenv:Fault>
</soapenv:Body>
</soapenv:Envelope>
You have set up an InfoSphere MDM Server development environment using a test
WebSphere
Application Server and locally installed DB2. The WebSphere Application Server security is
not enabled.
You run the "addPerson" Web service and receive the response shown in the exhibit.
Which step is required to allow the Web service request to succeed?
A. Set the configuration setting /IBM/DWLCommonServices/Security/enabled to false.
B. Redeploy the party Web service module with security disabled.
C. Run Prepare for Deployment on the MDM application.
D. Use the correct user ID and password in the request.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have a business requirement for an insurance domain. A party needs to declare
existing medical
conditions. A party can have multiple ailments. The attributes of an ailment depend upon the
nature of
ailment and there is no search requirement on ailment attributes. Additional attributes of an
ailment are
frequently added.
What should you do?
A. Create a data extension to the party.
B. Retain in the insurance system.
C. Create appropriate party demographic specs.
D. Create data addition.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two statements are true regarding tracking InfoSphere MDM Server
performance? (Choose
two.)
A. InfoSphere MDM Server provides the ability to capture performance statistics for the
transactions.
B. Performance tracking is a configurable option in InfoSphere MDM Server.
C. When performance tracking is configured to Level 1, you will obtain maximum details of all
the
components.
D. You can use Log4j to redirect MDM performance log to a log file.
Answer: AB

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NO.8 Which capability of Rational Software Architect must be enabled before developing
extensions or
additions?
A. Java Persistence API Transformation
B. Enterprise Java Developer
C. J2EE Developer
D. Web Service Developer
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have set up an InfoSphere MDM Server development environment using a test
WebSphere
Application Server, locally installed DB2, and developed a new data extension.
Which three steps are required when deploying the modified MDM application to the
WebSphere test
server? (Choose three.)
A. Publish changes in the workspace to the WebSphere Application Server.
B. Update properties.jar and DWLSchemas.jar in the MDM application project.
C. Run the generated SQL scripts to set up the database.
D. Merge the generated properties and XSD file snippets into the files in the
CustomerResources project.
E. Deploy the configuration to the WebSphere Application Server.
Answer: ACD

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NO.10 You are setting up a new workstation using WebSphere Application Server 6.1.
What are two manual steps that must be completed when setting up InfoSphere MDM Server
on the
workstation PC? (Choose two.)
A. Change the default JRE to the WebSphere Application Server JRE.
B. Change the default JRE to the Eclipse JDK.
C. Set the compiler level to 1.5.
D. Add BusinessServices.jar and DWLCommonServices.jar to the Java build path as User
Libraries.
Answer: AC

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NO.11 You have set up an InfoSphere MDM Server development environment using a test
WebSphere
Application Server, locally installed DB2, and have developed a new data extension. After
deploying and
testing the data extension you need to add some additional attributes to it. You modify the
data extension
model and re-generate the code.
Before running the generated database setup scripts to deploy the changed database
definitions, which
step is required?
A. Run the generated database rollback scripts.
B. Run the Configuration and Management component.
C. Run the Development Environment Setup wizard.
D. Restart the server.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Where in the InfoSphere MDM Server Workbench can you set the database schema
name?
A. in an MDM Module Project "module.mdmxmi" file
B. in an MDM Module Project "mdmgen.properties" file
C. in the MDM Application Model "application.mdmxmi" file
D. within the "resources" folder in an MDM Module Project
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer wants to implement a new search transaction (searchbyZipCode) at the
controller
component level. This is implemented by associating a finder class to this transaction. This
finder class
contains the business logic to search for all party details that match the zip code supplied in
the input
request by a direct SQL statement call.
What are two steps necessary to implement this customization? (Choose two.)
A. Assign a name for this transaction, e.g., searchByZipCode -- modify the OOTB request
XML to reflect
the required structure for input for the search parameter by changing the appropriate search
transaction.
B. Ensure that the MDM extension framework is disabled (enabled = false).
C. Register the transaction name searchByZipCode?in the CDBUSINESSTXTP table.
D. Register the new transaction name searchByZipCode?within the
tcrm_extension.properties files.
Answer: CD

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NO.14 A granular composite Java proxy, CompositePartyAddressTxnBP.java, is created to
process (search,
inquiry, and persist) partyAddress records in InfoSphere MDM Server application.
Which two steps are required to implement CompositePartyAddressTxnBP.java? (Choose
two.)
A.Extend DWLTxnBP and create a public method execute() to overwrite the
com.dwl.base.requesthandler.DWLTxnBP.execute() method.
B. Implement the IBusProxy interface and add business logic in the execute() method.
C. Invoke the appropriate method in TCRMPartyComponent.java to complete the transaction.
D. Invoke the super.execute() method to delegate transactions to the appropriate MDM
controller to
complete the transaction.
Answer: AD

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NO.15 Your client has several external rules used in their solution. The client is experiencing
performance
problems. You are trying to determine which external rule is causing the performance
bottleneck.
Which two configurations are needed to track the performance using the performance tracker
component
of InfoSphere MDM Server. (Choose two.)
A. Set the
/IBM/DWLCommonServices/PerformanceTracking/ExternalBusinessRules/enabled
configuration property to true.
B. Set the
/IBM/DWLCommonServices/PerformanceTracking/ExternalBusinessRules/enabled
configuration property to false.
C. Set tracking level as "-1" to indicate that you are enabling custom performance tracking.
D. The default level performance tracking level 0 will be enough to track the performance
effectively.
Answer: AC

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NO.16 You are configuring InfoSphere MDM Server for a financial institution with a large
number of
customers.
Which two statements are correct regarding performance of the InfoSphere MDM Server
application?
(Choose two.)
A. Turning on the suspect Duplicate Processing feature does not have any impact on the
performance.
B. The Transaction Audit Information Log will not have any impact on the performance.
C. Smart inquiries help in minimizing the performance impact.
D. The summary data indicators feature avoids queries on a per transaction basis thus
helping improve
performance.
Answer: CD

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NO.17 What are three ways to determine which InfoSphere MDM Server components are
causing
performance bottlenecks? (Choose three.)
A. Capture performance data using the logging component of InfoSphere MDM Server.
B. Use Tivoli Performance Viewer of WebSphere Application Server to summarize reports of
performance
statistics.
C. Capture the data stored in the Transaction Audit Information Log of InfoSphere MDM
Server.
D. Use ARM4.0 implementation to measure the availability and performance of transactions.
E. Review the history tables data.
Answer: ABD

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NO.18 Which two reasons would justify the execution of the Evergreen application? (Choose
two.)
A. The solution has been upgraded to the new version of InfoSphere MDM Server.
B. New Rules of Visibility have been deployed.
C. Suspect processing is enabled in an operational environment after the initial load of data
with suspect
processing is bypassed.
D. Party matching rules have changed.
Answer: CD

IBM   C2090-420   certification C2090-420   C2090-420

NO.19 When configuring the Configuration and Management component of InfoSphere MDM
Server for
J2EE, what is the correct value for the "NAME" column of the APPDEPLOYMENT table?
A. the installation directory of the application
B. the name of the application as known by the application server and specified in the
bootstrap.properties file
C. the name of the cluster node on which the instance runs
D. the URI indicating the JMX remote connector server through which incoming connections
can be made
Answer: B

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NO.20 What are three behaviors of InfoSphere MDM Server that the Configuration and
Management
component controls? (Choose three.)
A. enabling and disabling notifications
B. configuring external validations
C. configuring performance tracking
D. enabling and disabling suspect duplicate processing
E. defining custom error messages
Answer: ACD

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